Soviets gets obliterated but Germany still losses.

Hard to figure out how this can happen.

If your POD is in 1941 as OTL, when France has fallen, there is no way the western allies, i.e. the British empire and the US, will be able to pay the tremendous price it would cost them to succeed in landing armies on the european continent and defeating Nazi Germany alone.

OTL, the wide majority of the german army was and remained engaged in the east front, and 80% of german casualties were inflicted by the soviet army. This was where most of the war effort was made and this was where the true decision for the war in Europe was made.

The US and Britain alone will not be able to defeat a Germany that successfully conquers and keeps western USSR and its oil resources.

The only very thin possibility to have it on the paper would be France and Belgium and Netherlands not conquered in 1940.

The allies would make a deal with Germany in 1940, accepting its conquest of western Poland, in order to have time to build up their military, and would give an implicit green light for Nazi Germany to jump at the USSR’s throat, and then they would stab Germany in the back. Or rather they would try to stab Germany in the back, because the preparation of that kind of move can’t go unnoticed.
And anyway it would be very unwise to wait for Germany’s progress in the USSR to backstab Germany because Germany would then be stronger and it will take much time to bring in significant US military forces.

Not defeated in 45 timeline..but if given a few years maybe.

In this timeline when does Germany defeat Russia?
 
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