Is there any way that Argentina, & Chile could've, similar to Brazil & central American countries, have developed large black populations ?
Is there any way that Argentina, & Chile could've, similar to Brazil & central American countries, have developed large black populations ?
Here's an idea:
In 1813, the Nataional Assambly in Argentina dictated the Freedom of wombs act which established that any kid born of slave parents after January 31st 1813 would be free. Slavery wasn't abolished until 1853, although back then ther were very few slaves. It was then established that any slave entering our territory would be free. What if slavery was formally abolished earlier, and there was an exodus of Portuguese/Bbrazilian slaves to Argentina? Could there have been a Brazilian underground railroad? This requires a more "black friendly" Argentina, of course, and wouldn't probably give Argentina the percentage of blacks Brazil has. But, has any of this any chance of occuring? I'm intrigued about the Brazilian part...
Also Brazil has a huge interior in the Amazon basin, they can migrate westward and start their own farms, displacing Indians living in the rainforest, why would they want to migrate across international borders into the cold?A mass immigration of slaves isn't very likely since the regions near to Argentina never had a big slave population, and the ones that had were too distant from the border to take advantage from this. In Rio Grande do Sul slavery was much more an urban phenomena than rural. As the "peon" should also be a soldier of his landlord he should have arms, and no landowner wanted to have armed slaves nearby.
Also Brazil has a huge interior in the Amazon basin, they can migrate westward and start their own farms, displacing Indians living in the rainforest, why would they want to migrate across international borders into the cold?