Thanks for the attempt to clarify situation but the more I’m thinking about it, the more problems I have. Don’t take this as a personal offense, please.
No personal offence taken! I wouldn't have done two degrees in history if I didn't like discussing historical interpretation. I'm quite happy to be corrected over Russia as, of all the countries involved here, it is the one I know the least. That said, I have to admit that some of your objections outside Russian issues are as confusing to me as situation is to you; no offence intended either.
In OTL: the OE started the war demanding the Crimea back. By 1791 they were kicked out of all Black Sea’s northern coast and Repnin crossed the Danube and defeated the Grand Vizier at Machin while in a Caucasus the Ottomans lost Anapa. Even within your TL the Ottomans are nowhere close to the intended revenge and it was demonstrated that the British help is pretty much irrelevant in achieving that goal. So the issue is not the Russian march on Constantinople but a clear Ottoman failure to get back the CH or even to return the lost fortresses. As far as they are involved, they are just losing money, troops and taxes from the destroyed/occupied areas. All that in exchange for the unsubstantiated promises.
Putting Rumyantsev in charge there (in the South) does not make any practical sense because Repnin is doing just fine pushing the Ottomans as hard as physically possible and Rumyantsev can’t “end the war” just by the simple fact of his appearance on the theater. It would just unnecessarily offend Repnin. It would be different if Rumyantsev is getting a strong reinforcement allowing the large scale operations like complete occupation of Bulgaria or march across the Balkans (logistics of 1830s was not much better).
I agree with the facts stated here. The Ottomans have had a disaster in the war it is true. And yet, from everything I can find about the war, the Ottomans' entire strategy after the attempt to retake Crimea failed is to just hold and hold and hold and wear the Russians out. The spectre of foreign intervention alone was enough to keep them going IOTL well after the war was clearly lost from any 'rational' perspective. See the peace talks at Sistova. They took
9 months as the Ottomans kept quibbling, and even seemed willing to restart the fight, despite having repeatedly lost to the Austrians and continuing to repeatedly losing to the Russians. To me, this shows that the Sublime Porte is both insanely stubborn and incredibly optimistic, almost delusional, under Selim III. They didn't seem to care about how much rampaging around the Austrians and Russians did, as long as Constantinople was not threatened they had little inclination to agree peace. Admittedly, a big driver of their refusal to agree peace with the Austrians, even when the Austrian were offering status quo ante bellum, was Prussian diplomatic pressure. But wait, that's
just diplomatic pressure. ITTL, Prussia is at war helping them and so is Britain, so why would there be any more urgency to agree peace than IOTL? Sure, the help of the great powers hasn't really achieved much yet but the very existence of that help puts the Ottoman situation way beyond that of IOTL when they were just as stubborn about peace.
Now, correct me if I'm wrong, but it appears that you think the Ottomans should have sued for peace with the Russians already? On the basis that they have no real way to resist and the Russians are just smashing them repeatedly? Well, you're not wrong. The Ottomans are certainly in trouble, and I've pointed that out several times, and the war is effectively drifting. But at the same time, the war hadn't actually ended at this point IOTL. Peace was agreed at Jassy in January 1792 after, much like at Sistova, incredibly long negotiations. ITTL, the Ottomans
are buoyed by genuine support by the great powers which has actually manifested. I don't quite grasp why you think that would make so little difference. I've noted above how diplomatic pressure was enough to make a major difference at Sistova IOTL, IMHO it logically follows that real support would make a greater difference. I will admit tho, I have made an oversight in tracking the timeline of the Ottoman war whilst focussing on Prussia and Britain. They should be nearer to peace negotiations than I've previously allowed.
I don't mind admitting an error on Russian issues tho. I sent Rumyantsev there to replace Potemkin in effect, given Potemkin has abandoned that military command. And also as a point of spite by Catherine II, deliberately sending Potemkin's arrival to a new command to make point. If that is,however, a pointless thing to do then I'm quite happy to retcon it.
Sorry, but this does not work. To start with, if Potemkin still “meddling” (whatever this means), Rumyantsev will not accept command. After the shit that already happened, this would be a non-starter. Second, marching on Constantinople was not the only way to win a war against the Ottomans, as was already proven more than once and in your TL “backing” by two Great Powers produced zero results so for the Ottomans situation is not too different from the previous wars. The Ottomans are losing the battles, their towns are destroyed, the critical border fortresses are lost and they already lost control of the Danube Principalities. More stubbornness, and they may lose them forever with Russia being able to offer part of that pie to the Austrians as a bonus.
Suvorov, at least in OTL, was out of the theater and all the way to the Finnish border. If you decided to leave him there, it is fine, but this means that Repnin is free for other assignment. Ditto for Rumyantsev.
This seems to be a slightly more forthright reiterating of the previous point! So I'll refer to my above answer for the issues of Ottoman stubbornness and great power backing.
For the rest, first Potemkin's meddling. Well, as I've said. Potemkin's 'meddling' means he still has some influence of Russian foreign and military policy and is using it to push for war with Poland. From my, admittedly limited compared to yours, understanding of Russian politics at this time, this was a policy change that is entirely OTL for Potemkin and something he more or less did exactly IOTL. It also follows with Catherine II's immediate and strong objection to the May Constitution and her subsequent threats to invade and indeed actual invasion in 1792 IOTL. So I'm not quite grasping what the major issue here is?
Second I am aware that Rumyantsev and Potemkin had major issues with each other. I was under the impression that this was mainly from Potemkin blocking Rumyantsev from commands out of jealousy, hence the logic of a) Catherine II appointing Rumyantsev deliberately as a counterstroke to show Potemkin's declining influence and b) Rumyantsev accepting/being forced to accept an offer of appointment. I was not aware of this being Rumyantsev refusing appointments because of Potemkin, happy to be corrected on that if I'm wrong.
Third, Repnin. This point confuses me. Suvorov is indeed still in the Ottoman war, for now at least. No recall due to different circumstances ITTL. But I fail to see how this can effect Repnin's place in the Ottoman war when he was, afaik, already there commanding Russian forces along with Suvorov and contributed to the fall of Izmail. But is there something I'm missing here?
Fourthly, the point about Russia offering more of the pie to the Austrians. This goes back to my previous answer on Leopold and the Habsburgs and will also be partly explained by the next chapter. The long and short of it tho is, the Habsburgs aren't interested in it. Some Austrian commentators are certainly, Kaunitz IIRC was a strong advocate of Austria seizing both Moldavia and Wallachia in Joseph II's reign and the original Hertzburg Plan offered the Austrians the Danubian Principalities in return for giving up Galicia and Lodomeria but both suggestions were refused. (Side note, Joseph II was also noted as wanting to do exactly that exchange at other points in his reign, but by the late 1780s seems to have decided against it) Leopold II meanwhile is a monarch far more interested in a quick peace than getting slices of Wallachia and Moldavia, as will discussed further in the next chapter. So IMHO this isn't the great offer to the Austrians nor the great threat to the Ottomans that you seem to think. If anything, it would actually be more inclined to get the Habsburgs drawn into the war, with their substantial army, because they explicitly opposed significant Russian gains, especially annexations of the Danubian Principalities and Potemkin's Kingdom of Dacia plan.
Why would in this situation invasion of Poland is a priority? The PLC is not attacking Russia but Prussia does. Second comment is that you are either going close to the OTL or you are going to assume that CII is getting seriously senile: by 1791 Potemkin as a military leader and the leading politician was thoroughly compromised. The proprieties were preserved (or she’d have to acknowledge that she is just an old fool) but he was kicked out of the Russian politics and military affairs. Repnin was in charge against the Ottomans and Potemkin was just playing idiotic games sitting in his “court”. Of course, you can change this but see above about CIIs mental health.
Its a priority because the Russian court believes that the the PLC is going to join with the Prussians and British. Why do it believe this, because the PLC has deliberately courted Prussian and British protection. They did so IOTL repeatedly and it makes sense that they would do so here when it doesn't take a genius to realise that Russia is going to take immediate issue with the constitution and the PLC's two main potential allies are already fighting the war that the PLC would want them to fight. As for why Russia feels able to, in my understanding. Short answer is, as you have noted before, they can raise a massive amount of men and the Prussian and British war effort can be seen as 'irritations'.
Now, Potemkin being compromised as a military leader and politician. Again, I am very happy to be corrected on my understanding of the Russian situation but I will say what I have drawn on. I understand that Potemkin was increasingly having disputes with Catherine towards the end of his life. I decided to reflected this in the rift between the two over Potemkin trying to persuade Catherine to make immediate peace with the Triple Alliance and the Ottomans after their ultimatum. She obviously rejected that, leading to Potemkin being side-lined from the Ottoman war entirely and focussing on his Polish schemes. As I understand it, he did so IOTL even before the May Constitution and the end of the Ottoman war and indeed was planning to march straight on from Jassy into Poland before he died. ITTL, there is an acceleration of this shift from his political rift with Catherine, a rift which is then partly mended by events. He is saved by events as it were. The May Constitution, appeals for help, etc. lend credence to Potemkin's ambitions to crush Poland and so on. If that is a symptom of increasing senility then so be it, but I have tried to stick to chains of logic and cause and effect rather handwave things on the grounds of just poor decision making and senility.
Not that I understood too much out of this schema except that FWII is an obsessed idiot who tries to force the Russians to cede Ochakov back to the Ottomans by unsuccessfully attacking Riga without any clear reward in sight. In OTL he played Old Fritz, aka bluffed and blackmailed but here he jumps right into the s—t quite voluntarily without guaranteeing award for himself. This, IMO, immediately removes value of his OTL bluff against Austria: he can’t fight two Great Powers or even a single one.
Defense of the PLC is a noble goal but so far nobody is attacking it and there are no clear plans on this account. Even worse, there is no invasion army and none of the prominent Russian generals is anywhere close to the Polish border. So far, the schema looks as a case of a paranoia a little bit too complicated even for the XVIII politics. 😉
To be honest, I don't entirely understand why the Prussians thought the scheme was such a good idea either. And yet they did, so I'm rolling with it. The question of reward is answered by one simple point, the reward was to prevent Russia gaining territory. I know that sounds like a trivial reward hardly worth bothering about but that doesn't mean it didn't matter to the Prussians at the time. I have seen some theorising that Frederick William II, and Pitt ofc, was attempting to replicate the success of intimidating Leopold II into agreeing a status quo ante bellum peace with the Ottomans. That would certainly align with the utter conviction that the British and Prussians had that Russian would immediately roll over. And yet, if he was anticipating that Catherine II would just give up immediately, why did he draw up a full campaign plan and mass soldiers in eastern Prussia for the war? That to me suggests that he was committed to fighting Russia, even if the only reward he anticipated was preventing Russia gaining anything - it should not be forgotten that that would be a success in balance of power grand strategy.
Also, 'played Old Fritz' is quite apt. He attempted to be Old Fritz but had little of the genius and less of the boldness. He blundered around attempting intimidation and his only real 'success' was the 1787 Dutch intervention. ITTL, he blundered around into an actual war that he can't easily get out of.
As discussed above, there are preparations for war (or at least threat of war) with the PLC and Russia's opposition to the May Constitution are known. Its not really paranoia, its more a further attempt to the situation to his advantage. In this case by blackmailing Poland-Lithuania into giving up Danzig and Thorn if it wants Prussian help against Russia. If Russia don't invade Poland-Lithuania then never mind, no harm done, it wouldn't be the first of Frederick William II's grand plans to be abandoned in changing circumstances. If they do, then Prussia is already at war with Russia and it's a way to gain those territorial rewards that, as you point out, they're lacking from the current form of the war. Its not a noble goal or paranoia, its more self-interest within the situation that Prussia is in.
I got this and out of all possible plans this looks by far the most idiotic. Why don’t simply negotiate the acceptable custom dues in the Baltic ports?
Which Baltic ports are you referring to here? The Russian ports or the Polish ones?
Of course. Instead of buying supplies through the Prussian Baltic ports Pitt & Co are telling FWII: “we are going to kill your Baltic trade and for this you have to start war with Russia to help us to achieve our goal. BTW, you’ll not going to get anything as a reward.” How convincing is this?
This is circling back to the original POD and makes me concerned that I haven't explained things properly so far despite devoting a chapter to trying to establish all the moving parts here. If that's the case then my bad, I'll try to clear things up.
This war, as ridiculous as it might sound with hindsight, was
Prussia's idea. As noted above, Frederick William II was absolutely full of overly ambitious schemes and this was one of them. Their goal/reward, as noted above, is to prevent Russians gains.
IOTL, Prussia repeatedly pushed Pitt into action between October 1790 and March 1791 and it was Pitt who first agreed, then prevaricated and finally withdrew. The reason he agreed IOTL and ITTL is the same, he got into his head that Russia needed to be pinned back to status quo ante bellum to prevent the annexation of Ochakov, which would block the trade route to Poland up the Southern Bug. So if you want to argue about unconvincing arguments, then it is Britain who have fallen for an unconvincing project! And yet the only change from OTL to get this war to actually happen is that Gustav III was bought out for a lower price. I haven't changed anyone's willingness to undertake this plan, it is all entirely OTL.
Just as FWII and any other crowned head in Europe? Perhaps Britain must join the Revolutionary France. 😂
At this point I'm not sure if you're joking or genuinely asking. Yes, its a certain amount of picking and choosing, even cognitive dissonance. But I assure you that I'm following OTL attitudes here.
But this is a completely different story. Making speeches calling political opponent to do something he does not like is an old trick. But getting country into a messy war against its own economic interests is a completely different story.
If their goal was merely to get Pitt to do something he did not like then the campaign was remarkably committed across an extended period of time (basically from May1791 through to the defeat of Kościuszko) and willing to literally put their money where their mouth was. And you seem to be confusing the causes and effects here. 'They', the opposition factions, did not get Britain into this war. Pitt did, the opposition are now cheerleading it as continuing to fight Russia protects Poland from Russian aggression. Ie. because Pitt is doing what the opposition factions wanted him to do IOTL. Are there economic negatives certainly, I have discussed that previously, but politics can override economics, as the French Revolutionary Wars and Napoleonic Wars would demonstrate after this period IOTL.
Private individuals can afford to behave as the idiots, it does not put country under any obligations.
Certainly, and there was no claim that it does. The point made about this politically was that it served as a way to embarrass Pitt by contrasting his lack of proactivity in the war with the opposition walking the walk.
Getting back to the initial question: who attacked Poland? AFAIK, nobody so he is defending it against nobody.
Correct, nobody thus far. I've discussed above what is going on here with the belief that Poland will be attacked and how Russia is increasingly perceived as an autocratic enemy.
Rather difficult because nothing happens on the Baltic and Poland does not have an access to the Black Sea.
I'm sure we're re-treading old ground here. But to respond, Poland does have access to the Black Sea, in the imagination of British planners, down the Southern Bug (the whole point of preventing Russia taking Ochakov) and the big victory doesn't have to be in the Baltic either. Oh and also, trade to Poland is possible through the Batlic. We have previously discussed how agreeing lower tariffs down the Vistula was an alternative option.
In France as well? And, speaking of the liberty, how about that recent misunderstanding in the colonies? The Brits of 1791 as the liberty defenders would be joke of the year.
Forgive me, this is annoy when where I'm not sure if you're joking or not. On the off chance that you're not, then I will attempt again to elaborate.
First, France. Well, there are certain members of the opposition that would rather like Britain to support the French Revolution, Fox for instance, and this particular stage of the French Revolution was hardly in opposition to Britain and its political opinions. Its only after the Flight to Varennes that things start to escalate from reforming France to something close to a British style system to the Jacobinism that everyone feared and is now most closely associated with the French Revolution. So yeah, why not France? Not because of ideology certainly, more because why would Britain not just let France cause chaos for itself?
Second liberty and Britain as defenders of liberty. I can quite see why, from the modern perspective, one might think Britain in 1791 as defenders of liberty would be the joke of the year (especially if you were to base your opinion of Britain in this era of American historiography). And yet for all that, that
is how Britain conceived of itself. The 'misunderstanding in the colonies' as you put it was in no way contradictory to that belief. In the British mindset (barring ironically many of the same opposition who love the idea of Britain defending liberty in 1791), that war was one of crushing ungrateful traitors, in the mindset of their fellow Europeans it was an internal matter of dealing with a colonial rebellion. France didn't help the Americans because it believed in 'no taxation without representation', it helped them to get back at the British in the great power game. It was (and I might even argue is) only Americans who conceived of their war as a war for liberty and Britain as enemies of liberty. To the majority British mindset in 1791 and to the minds of European powers, if they cared at all, there is absolutely nothing about Britain framing itself as defenders of liberty. It is what Pitt did to try to justify the Ochakov Crisis IOTL, it is what the opposition did to try to persuade him to defend Poland in 1792 and 1794 IOTL. It is why Poland appealed to Britain as in 1792 and 1794 IOTL. It is also why Russia feared Britain would intervene to help Poland through the Second and Third Partitions.
As I keep saying, the “defending” part is hanging in the air. Not that the Brits could do any.
I have answered this point multiple times now. But will add that yes, the Brits can do things. They could certainly argue ITTL that they already are, by fulfilling their end of the original campaign plan.
No need: the repeating stress of the constitution vs. absolutism is clearly applicable across the board. Of course, this never prevented the Brits from making selective choices but their political demagoguery over the centuries was quite …er… “creative”.
That is a slightly harshly put, but broadly accurate yes. Though i am slightly bemused by some of your other points if you know this.
Now, CII was paranoid on the subject and went against her own early policies. This is an obvious fact. But this does not explain what the Brits are getting excited about and why pre-terror France does not qualify. 😉
I have attempted to answer this one already as well. I don't think I can explain it any further without pointing you to the paper I got this all from.