"Smolensk and Bryansk Are Ours": Maximum Belarus

As an alternative way to satisfy Belarusian territorial demands in the East (but not in the West):

The Poles might defeat the Bolsheviks even more decisively than in OTL, and Pilsudski might insist on somrthing like the Truce of Deulino line https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Truce_of_Deulino Everything from Minsk to Smolensk [1] would then become the Belarusian part of the Polish-Lithuanian-Belarusian-Ukrainian federation he dreamed of (basically, a modernized version of the old Rzeczpospolita). As I said, this would require the Bolsheviks to be defeated even more decisively than they were in OTL. It would also require a change in internal Polish politics from OTL; obviously, the Endecja https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/National_Democracy is not going to be happy about a federation with a state heavily populated by Orthodox East Slavs--and even worse, one with a large Jewish minority.

[1] The largely-Belarusian areas included in OTL interwar Poland--Grodno, Nowogrodek, etc.--will probably be considered part of Poland "proper".
 

CaliGuy

Banned
Sure he did. Have you read his book? He praises Jews a lot. The reason was simple. The Jews cooperated most with the German occupation.

Based on my readings, immediately after WW1, the Jews were not seen as the reason for the defeat. It was more after the German economy failed from roughly the 1921 to 1924 period that Jews became the scapegoats. In a German WW1 win scenario, the Germans are likely to try to maximize Jewish influences to minimize the power of various new Slavic states. While it sounds a bit odd, since Yiddish is a dialect of German, the Germans often counted Jews as Germans to justify a strong Germanic policy in the east. The way people play games with census numbers back then is fascinating.
So, why didn't Ludendorff speak out against the anti-Semitism that emerged in Germany between 1921 and 1924?
 
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