John Fredrick Parker
Donor
OTL, the 1926 Tax Code lowered the top tax rate (for those making $500,000 or more) from 46% to 26%. Supposing, with the previous cuts (1921-24) being unaffected, this change hadn't been made or wasn't so drastic? I don't think the US goverment would have to be particularly progressive for this to happen; it could have been instead of lowering the top tax bracket from $500,000 to $100,000, the new revenue act could have given the same level of tax cuts for people making just over $100,000, and the same for those making less, but then adding tax brackets on top of $500,000 such that 40% surtax remains the top rate, if only for millionaires.
Now, it is quite possible that this is a very small change, and not very consequential at all; is this the case?Alternatively, might it have reduced the level at which economic growth in the last decades of the boom as concentrated? Or at least have left more revenue already in place for New Deal-like programs?
Now, it is quite possible that this is a very small change, and not very consequential at all; is this the case?Alternatively, might it have reduced the level at which economic growth in the last decades of the boom as concentrated? Or at least have left more revenue already in place for New Deal-like programs?