Slave Trade Act of 1807 without the US act?

In 1807 Britain enacted the Slave Trade act banning the slave trade in the british empire. That was the same year where the US act of prohibiting importation of slaves was finally enacted after a twenty year delay.

The British navy actually sent out ships to patrol and stop slave ships leaving the west coast of africa with slaves, the West africa Squadron.

What do you think would have been the outcome had the US not issued the act to prohibit the importation of slave or set a much later date for it to come into effect?
Would Britain have allowed the US to continue importing slaves? Could this be grounds for conflict between the two?
 
To my knowledge the dates falling near each other were a coincidence based on the constitution:


The Article 1 Section 9 of the United States Constitution protected the slave trade for twenty years. Only starting January 1, 1808 could laws become effective to end the slave trade.

The Migration or Importation of such Persons as any of the States now existing shall think proper to admit, shall not be prohibited by the Congress prior to the Year one thousand eight hundred and eight, but a tax or duty may be imposed on such Importation, not exceeding ten dollars for each Person
 
Was there any deliberate coordination of those actions between the two governments?

Yes. The British didn't abolish the international slave trade any sooner precisely because until they had the cooperation of the USA, there was no point.

This was more than just avoiding grounds for conflict (though that may have played a part), but because a lot of the international slave trade was carried by American (mostly New England) merchant vessels. Abolishing British slave trading would just mean that New England merchant vessels would pick that trade. So abolishing it before the USA did would be pointless.
 
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