It's often said that 1940 was the best time for Germany to attack France, as British/French rearmament and reorganisation would mean that waiting until 1941 would likely cause a German attack to fail. However, OTL France and Britain already had the forces to defeat a German offensive, just not the specific offensive that actually happened, as the forces ended up in the wrong place and the command structures were incapable of reacting quickly enough to the German thrust.
So if we delay the German attack until autumn 1940 or May 1941, do these factors of CCC and deployment still dominate? Would the German forces be able to punch through the Ardennes, storm the Meuse and then drive to the sea much like OTL, or would the stronger, more numerous Allied forces be able to blunt the attack and seal the breach? Would allied strategy of the Dyle Plan remain the same or evolve into something less one-dimensional?
Feel free to choose autumn 1940 or May 1941, and to specify whether war began in 1939 as OTL or whether the invasion of Poland was delayed a year to 1940, noting the potential implications for rearmament in each case.
So if we delay the German attack until autumn 1940 or May 1941, do these factors of CCC and deployment still dominate? Would the German forces be able to punch through the Ardennes, storm the Meuse and then drive to the sea much like OTL, or would the stronger, more numerous Allied forces be able to blunt the attack and seal the breach? Would allied strategy of the Dyle Plan remain the same or evolve into something less one-dimensional?
Feel free to choose autumn 1940 or May 1941, and to specify whether war began in 1939 as OTL or whether the invasion of Poland was delayed a year to 1940, noting the potential implications for rearmament in each case.