Settler colonialism practiced in Latin America.

Suppose that with a POD no later than 1600, the Spanish and Portuguese had practiced settler colonialism more extensively in the New World. Specifically, rather than sending mostly single men to the colonies like ITOL, they had attempted to get more women and peasant families to settle as well. Is it feasible? How would Latin America be different if this had been practiced?
 
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If the Spanish pushed for heavier settler colonialism in their colonies, it would probably only last for 100 years or so before the increasing prevalence of malaria (malaria wasn't present in the New World before 1492) and makes it unattractive to settle the tropical regions. Then mainly Rio de la Plata and Chile, as well as highland Mexico would see further Spanish immigration.
 
If the Spanish pushed for heavier settler colonialism in their colonies, it would probably only last for 100 years or so before the increasing prevalence of malaria (malaria wasn't present in the New World before 1492) and makes it unattractive to settle the tropical regions. Then mainly Rio de la Plata and Chile, as well as highland Mexico would see further Spanish immigration.
I was about to say that the Southern Cone would be the perfect location for a Spanish settler colony. Heck, today Argentina is 90% White (mainly Spanish and Italian).
 
Suppose that with a POD no later than 1600, the Spanish and Portuguese had practiced settler colonialism more extensively in the New World. Specifically, rather than sending mostly single men to the colonies like ITOL, they had attempted to get more women and peasant families to settle as well. Is it feasible? How would Latin America be different if this had been practiced?
OTL, people got bad ideas, but outside the sugar island,all the americas were settler colonies with explotative/slavery to give profits, but malaria and others did keep population low
 
OTL the Spanish only let Castillians into the New World.

If the Spanish allowed Galicians, Catalans, Sardinian, Sicilians, Flemings, Neopolitans, Milanese, etc into their American holdings, there'd have been a LOT more settlers in the New World.
 
Suppose that with a POD no later than 1600, the Spanish and Portuguese had practiced settler colonialism more extensively in the New World. Specifically, rather than sending mostly single men to the colonies like ITOL, they had attempted to get more women and peasant families to settle as well. Is it feasible? How would Latin America be different if this had been practiced?
It has mostly to do with inner Spanish and Portoguese politics, the Spanish were relatively picky with the people they allowed to move to the Americas, I think you need to have some important changes in how Spain comes to be in the 15th and 16th century.

A 17th century POD could involve an earlier change in policy that we saw IOTL with the Bourbons, so an early succession war could help with that.

Given how high the population was in Spanish America, settler colonialism of that type wouldn't have been necessary.
But it was, if we are to believe even the lowest realistical population estimates for the Andes and Mesoamerica, those places had a lower population up to the 19th century.

OTL, people got bad ideas, but outside the sugar island,all the americas were settler colonies with explotative/slavery to give profits, but malaria and others did keep population low
What do you mean by "people got bad ideas OTL"

OTL the Spanish only let Castillians into the New World.

If the Spanish allowed Galicians, Catalans, Sardinian, Sicilians, Flemings, Neopolitans, Milanese, etc into their American holdings, there'd have been a LOT more settlers in the New World.
I wonder how high the numbers could realistically get
 
What do you mean by "people got bad ideas OTL"
That we were abandoned lands with mostly few cities before XX century, Latam have diverse population in much their nations and urban center and rural areas but the numbers only exploded till 20th century thanks to more advance agricultural and medical science

I wonder how high the numbers could realistically get
Not that Higher, Latam Population didn't exploded till late XX century(argentina as exception but that was closer to europe climate anyway), i can imagine a 20% tops and even more mestizage(mixing) that OTL. Remember we got hard border thanks to disease and low densitity(the inmigration can solve the latter...but the former is a challenged)
 
I wonder how high the numbers could realistically get

It would depend where you stick them.

Argentina, Uruguay, the Mexican highlands... these places could have taken in a lot of settlers.

My impression is that many of these settlers would find their way to North America too (Texas, Louisiana, Florida, etc). Perhaps the Bahamas as well, which weren't really made much use of OTL.
 

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It was practiced to an extent. 3 million Spaniards migrated from 1492-~1750. Its just Spanish America was really big, with their territories in South America already bigger than all of Europe.

If you want more settlement, you need to open up immigration from non Castile areas earlier. Probably requires removing the Hapsburgs from the throne earlier to open up settlement by French and Italian immigrants. The Italians from Naples would make for great source of settlers given the stagnant economy of the region.

If the Spanish pushed for heavier settler colonialism in their colonies, it would probably only last for 100 years or so before the increasing prevalence of malaria (malaria wasn't present in the New World before 1492) and makes it unattractive to settle the tropical regions. Then mainly Rio de la Plata and Chile, as well as highland Mexico would see further Spanish immigration.
I don't think malaria would be that big of an issue. It didn't stop the Spaniards from resettling thousands of Canarian families in Santo Domingo and Puerto Rico during the 1700s. Malaria was also a problem in Southern Europe and the American southern colonies as well, and look at their demographics.
 
OTL the Spanish only let Castillians into the New World.

If the Spanish allowed Galicians, Catalans, Sardinian, Sicilians, Flemings, Neopolitans, Milanese, etc into their American holdings, there'd have been a LOT more settlers in the New World.
Galicians were Castillians. And of course there were catalans, italians, germans and even greeks!!! We are talking about the XVI-XVII centuries: one thing is the law and another is if you can enforce it.
 
Who needs European women and children when you have bicultural mestizo children who can access trade and landgrabs better than their fathers?

They laid the foundation for European settlement anyways through the concentration fo trade and power of a more macro lecel around the forts ans towns that developed.
 
Regarding the question of disease curbing immigrant potential - you have to keep in mind how all those nasty diseases came from Africa with slaves, if you can somehow prevent transatlantic slavery or significantly curb it, that'll be a huge improvement considering the issue.
 
Galicians were Castillians. And of course there were catalans, italians, germans and even greeks!!! We are talking about the XVI-XVII centuries: one thing is the law and another is if you can enforce it.
Yeah this the typical ' latam didn't become USA, try imitated' but forgot hopw things worked in the regions, plus latin america is titanic, not couting the land mexico loss too, so there was more variated regions to settle and those compete with each other in that regard.
Who needs European women and children when you have bicultural mestizo children who can access trade and landgrabs better than their fathers?

They laid the foundation for European settlement anyways through the concentration fo trade and power of a more macro lecel around the forts ans towns that developed.
That happened OTL and much were second class citizens vs the pure white Criollo(creole)
 
IOTL Bartolome de Las Casas received crown approval for a bona fide settler colony at Cumana in 1520 as part of an experiment meant to prove that settler colonialism would he preferable to the standing practice of conquista y encomienda. It was comprised of married couples and their children, primarily artisans and farmers as opposed to hidalgos who were not legally bound to perform manual labor.

However, the experiment failed under the pressure of harassment from both local Spaniards who resented Las Casas and from the native populations, who had already grown hostile towards the Spanish due to their slave-raiding. Have this venture succeed (possibly by sending it to a better climate and keeping it far removed from other Spanish settlements) and Spain's attitude towards settler colonialism will change accordingly.
 
IOTL Bartolome de Las Casas received crown approval for a bona fide settler colony at Cumana in 1520 as part of an experiment meant to prove that settler colonialism would he preferable to the standing practice of conquista y encomienda. It was comprised of married couples and their children, primarily artisans and farmers as opposed to hidalgos who were not legally bound to perform manual labor.

However, the experiment failed under the pressure of harassment from both local Spaniards who resented Las Casas and from the native populations, who had already grown hostile towards the Spanish due to their slave-raiding. Have this venture succeed (possibly by sending it to a better climate and keeping it far removed from other Spanish settlements) and Spain's attitude towards settler colonialism will change accordingly.
That was just a mini Welserland(what renamed Klein Venedig now Venezuela) and that one failed thanks to lack of inmunity of the colonials...
 
That happened OTL and much were second class citizens vs the pure white Criollo(creole)

I'm well aware it happened OTL just as I am well aware that throughout the Spanish empire their blood quantum laws allowed eventual Criollo status, exempted mestizos and Castizos of royal indigenous ancestry inferior positions and provided individuals who could afford it certificates of white status.

If you have a population base that can be whitened the incentive to have white families come is reduced.
 
OTL the Spanish only let Castillians into the New World.

If the Spanish allowed Galicians, Catalans, Sardinian, Sicilians, Flemings, Neopolitans, Milanese, etc into their American holdings, there'd have been a LOT more settlers in the New World.

Are you sure, that, the Spanish only let Castillians to the New Worlds? In our timeline, there were many Basques in the New World.
 
Are you sure, that, the Spanish only let Castillians to the New Worlds? In our timeline, there were many Basques in the New World.
People got the wrong ideas, this thread help to dismantled those myths

I'm well aware it happened OTL just as I am well aware that throughout the Spanish empire their blood quantum laws allowed eventual Criollo status, exempted mestizos and Castizos of royal indigenous ancestry inferior positions and provided individuals who could afford it certificates of white status.

If you have a population base that can be whitened the incentive to have white families come is reduced.
Err nope...OTL they tried to play later mestizos and that failed and backfired spetacullary as much decided better work with criollos for the upcoming independance...nobody like spanish rules post the austria and by 1800 was already loathed.
 
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