Originally Posted by seraphim74
What teutonic armies? The Teutonic Order? It was founded in Holy Land in 1191. Polish prince Conrad of Masovia invited Teutonic Knights to fight pagan Prussians (Prus) in 1226. How they come to be in your timeline?
How they come to Poland?
More important, in XIth century Poland was still relatively weak country. So was Lithuania, and nobody ever heard about Teutonic Knights.
I understand this is anachronistic. When I used Teutonic, I used it in the sense of "Deutsch" or "German", more a reference to the West Germanic tribe of Teutons (who among other West Germanic peoples such as Alemani, Angles, Franks, Friesians, Jutes, Saxons, etc. contributed to the post-Roman peopling of England, Germany, France, the Netherlands, etc.). Granted the "Teutons" mentioned are ancestral to the Holy Roman Empire (and the Teutonic Order, Prussia, Austrians, etc.). I should clarify that the warriors are NOT Teutonic Knights, at best mere forunners.
Originally Posted by Dmitry
First. Were Oghuz really better warriors than Cumans and Pechenegs? I'm not so sure.
As nomadic warriors? I am not sure. Of course in my TL, I assume that the Turks in question develop a mixed strategy wherein they still retain their steppe nomad culture but in their attempts against Persians and Byzantines modify their military and political strategy.
Originally Posted by Dmitry
Both the latter never even _tried_ to take military and political control over Rus, their campaigns against it were all about plundering, not conquest.
Cumans and Pechenegs were largely raiders, essentially, "Vikings of the steppe". As you said, their campaigns were about plundering, not conquest. The Seljuks in this TL, on the other hand, attempted to colonize the Mideast but were defeated. They are therefore desperate and in search of a country, so as a sort of refugee army they have a strong motive to continue fighting, assuming they are not just ready to retreat into the steppes.
Originally Posted by Dmitry
Second. Kievan Rus was a rising power of this time, recently smashed to splinters Khazar Khaganate, and seriously troubled Byzantium on its peak.
Remember, in my TL the Seljuk invaders came to the aid of the Khazars (which in OTL were in decline hence why the Rus were able to "smash to splinters" the Khazar Khaganate), and together posed a serious threat to the emerging Rus. In OTL the Oghuz forrunners of the Seljuks were on friendly terms with the Khazars. Also, the Turks posed a MORE serious trouble to Byzantium at its apex, and would shortly thereafter conquer it.
Originally Posted by Dmitry
You'd say - how they manage to vanquish Byzantine Empire 100 yrs later? Bur by that time Byzantines had massive internal political, economic, and miltary crisis. Russians had none of it.
A power on the rise may be better off than a power in decline, but neither power is necessarily established. At this point, the Rus were not yet established, and many promising empires have been unable to survive to establish themselves in the long term. In this case, the conditions were good for the growth of the Rus states in the OTL, but what if some entity were to challenge the power early on, before the Rus established themselves.
Originally Posted by Midgard
...one big misconception at the heart of this TL is that Kievan Rus was a centralized state akin to Byzantium, which it was not. At its most centralized, Kievan Rus was more akin to the Holy Roman Empire of the Hohenstaufens, and most of the time, it was a lot more like the "average" (post-Staufen) HRE.
What if the newly arrived Seljuk Turks used this divisiveness to their advantage?
Originally Posted by Midgard
Seljuk takeover of Kiev under Vladimir is not particularly plausible in the first place, and with the apparent easiness you've had them take over with, almost completely ASB-ish.
ASB?

I guess, I might as well give the Seljuk armies some AK-47 assault rifles!
Originally Posted by Midgard
So, a Turk can crown himself a "Velikii Knyaz" of Kiev, and expect to be treated as one - that is, unless the remaining Rurikids (of whom there were already quite a few, each with his own fiefdom to begin with) unite to throw them out, which they can, simply for the idea that an "outsider" is holding a Rurikid throne.
Of course, if the Turkic invaders manage to successfully conquer the lands and pacify the remaining peoples, the newcomers may have to exterminate the Rurikids, but it is not uncommon for a new dynasty to wipe out the old one.
Originally Posted by Midgard
Still, the thing is, capture of Kiev alone does not automatically indicate conquest of the Rus - at this stage, the Rus is still pretty amorphous as a nation, and is more accurately described as HRE-like collection of states. Sure, taking one could do some damage, but it would require a lot more effort for the Seljuks to be able to make permanent damage, especially since they would not be dealing with incompetent governments of Michael VII and Nicephorus III. Playing off Russian states against one another is about the only way they can approach the same degree of damage...
Fair enough.
Originally Posted by Midgard
...and the Varangians could put up a hell of a fight, especially since they will have easier logistics, more familiar territory, and more familiarity fighting the steppe invaders.
Hence why "janissaries" would be used. Convert some of the local Slavs and Vikings to Muslim Seljuk loyalists and have them fight, using their strategy.
Originally Posted by Midgard
You had Kievan Rus at a low point of HRE-like divisiveness, with civil strife for much of the past fifty years, and inability of the princes to work together or even to decide upon a single war leader... and make the Rus much more powerful and give it a leader who by the sheer force of will could impose his will on the lesser princes (but whose defeat would not necessarily stop the fighting - only have another take his place, with or without Kiev)... the outcome would be different.
I sense a contradiction. I am sorry but based on this statement I can not take your argument seriously. You claim that the Kievan Rus were a decentralized collection of states akin to the Holy Roman Empire and use this divisiveness as an argument against the plausibility of my timeline. Granted, the lack of a strong centralisation and an amorphous structure might make the Rus as a whole resistant to conquest, even with a successful seizure of Kiev, but then given this divisiveness, what stops the Turks from playing Varangian Rus groups against each other? My TL overlooked a useful possibility! You then claim however, that the lack of a centralization of power in Russia enabled the Mongol conquest, as if a top-down reign would command a more effective resistance. So which is it? Is political decentralization advantageous or disadvantageous? Why is a Holy Roman-type Empire effective against an Oghuz conquest but not against a Mongol one?
Originally Posted by
Midgard
If you think OTL Russia was backwards for most of its history...
I am sorry to say it, but nothing indicates to me that OTL Russia was NOT
relatively backwards for most of its history.
In the meantime, I thought of another possibility which the invaders might use to their advantage. Perhaps given the strong stratification of Russian culture, the Turks might use the class conflict to their advantage, perhaps somehow utilizing uprisings to destabilize the Rus leadership.