ruling house of France

Who should rule France

  • Capet

    Votes: 22 61.1%
  • Valois

    Votes: 7 19.4%
  • Valois-Orleans

    Votes: 2 5.6%
  • Valois angoueleme

    Votes: 0 0.0%
  • Bourbon

    Votes: 5 13.9%

  • Total voters
    36
  • Poll closed .
Who are you hovering between?

Well, I'm wondering if there wasn't some way- though there probably wasn't- if France, after Charles V, couldn't have turned
to someone- anyone!- other than Charles
VI(or @ least quickly gotten him off the
throne). That may well have prevented a
lot of future problems- as well as butterflying
Charles VII away.
 
Well, I'm wondering if there wasn't some way- though there probably wasn't- if France, after Charles V, couldn't have turned
to someone- anyone!- other than Charles
VI(or @ least quickly gotten him off the
throne). That may well have prevented a
lot of future problems- as well as butterflying
Charles VII away.
An early death?
 
Weren't Louis XII and later Francis I actually descend from Louis, Duke of Orleans, brother of Charles VI, and the same man who was murdered by John the Fearless, Duke of Burgundy? Why keep the appellation Valois if they could just be called the House of Orleans since Louis XII was actually Duke of Orleans before he became king, just like Philip VI was Count of Valois before he became king??

Because the dynasty are usually called by the principal title held just before getting onto the throne, not the name of the ancestor. Thus two Valois (Philip, Count and Francis, Duke) and one Orléans (Louis, Duke), even if all three descended from the same Charles de Valois and the latter two from the same Louis d'Orléans.
 
Because the dynasty are usually called by the principal title held just before getting onto the throne, not the name of the ancestor. Thus two Valois (Philip, Count and Francis, Duke) and one Orléans (Louis, Duke), even if all three descended from the same Charles de Valois and the latter two from the same Louis d'Orléans.
Technically Francis I is a Valois-Angoulême.
 
Technically Francis I is a Valois-Angoulême.

Technically. Everybody at the time used the name "Valois", some "Angoulême" as a second title, and none "Orléans". The bastards of the house had the name "Valois", not Angoulême (even if one ended up with the duchy of Angoulême). No historians has ever wrote about the "Court of the Angoulême". "Valois-Angoulême" is just a technical construct to avoid confusion between "first" and "second Valois". The same goes for the "Valois-Anjou" and "Valois-Burgundy", has there was two houses of these names stemming from the royal family. That did not mean the Anjou and the Burgundy ever used the name Valois or are usually referred as such.
 
Top