Rome and Parthia joined at the... womb?

Alright, Emperor Caracalla, way back in 216, sent a request to the Parthian King Artabanus to marry his daughter (potentially creating a heir to both kingdoms). In all actuality, Caracalla massacred the diplomatic team sent to arrange the marriage and launched an invasion of Parthia. But, what if Caracalla actually successfully married Artabanus's daughter? Would a child of this union actually be recognized as a the Emperor of Rome and King of Parthia? Could the two nations actually ever function together as a union?
 
Alright, Emperor Caracalla, way back in 216, sent a request to the Parthian King Artabanus to marry his daughter (potentially creating a heir to both kingdoms). In all actuality, Caracalla massacred the diplomatic team sent to arrange the marriage and launched an invasion of Parthia. But, what if Caracalla actually successfully married Artabanus's daughter? Would a child of this union actually be recognized as a the Emperor of Rome and King of Parthia? Could the two nations actually ever function together as a union?

That presumes a medieval model of politics that was actually rather rare in the ancient world. The marriage of one ruler to another's daughter was typically more of an economic transaction, like a friendship clause within a peace treaty, and not a generally a method of allowing a dynasty to extend its suzerainty over more territory. Also, do we know if Artabanus had any children other than this daughter, like say a son who would be a more direct heir?
 
That presumes a medieval model of politics that was actually rather rare in the ancient world. The marriage of one ruler to another's daughter was typically more of an economic transaction, like a friendship clause within a peace treaty, and not a generally a method of allowing a dynasty to extend its suzerainty over more territory. Also, do we know if Artabanus had any children other than this daughter, like say a son who would be a more direct heir?

It doesn't look like it, from what I can glean. Artanabus was killed by Ardashir I in 226, which ended the Arsacid Dynasty.
 
Ah yes, the Sassanids... I had forgotten about them. But yeah, their arrival on the scene in 224 pretty much shoots any Roman-Parthian union in the foot, as it would quickly loose its Parthian half...
 
Ah yes, the Sassanids... I had forgotten about them. But yeah, their arrival on the scene in 224 pretty much shoots any Roman-Parthian union in the foot, as it would quickly loose its Parthian half...

Caracalla fancied himself to be the next Alexander the Great, however (the original reason he invaded Parthia), so perhaps he would be willing to fight the Sassanids?
 
Caracalla fancied himself to be the next Alexander the Great, however (the original reason he invaded Parthia), so perhaps he would be willing to fight the Sassanids?

In OTL the Romans did eventually intervene in a massive coalition against the Sassanids. Ardeshir and Shapur handed their asses to them.
 
Would a child of this union actually be recognized as a the Emperor of Rome and King of Parthia? Could the two nations actually ever function together as a union?
The thing is even if the resulting child is recognized as ruler of both it's rather hard to imagine things would stay that way more thana generation or two... as often as not the title of Emperor of Rome passed via civil-war and murder than blood.

Edit: Also, it's unlikely that Caracalla's hypothetical son would be directly inline for the Parthian throne once Artabanus karks it... but I dare say the Romans would try invading to put said son on the throne if given the chance.
 
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