Anderman
Donor
Did you look at a map of Germany in - say - 1900?
Prussia actually had both. 65% of the "size of state by area" (350,000 square kilometers out of 540,000 square kilometers for the whole of Germany in 1871) and roughly 60-65% of the population in 1900.
The Southern German states would have never accepted a unified German country in 1871 if Prussia had insisted on a 2/3 majority everywhere. So Bismarck accepted a "reduced" role for Prussia in the upper chamber. 17 votes means that Prussia on its own could veto federal laws. But it also means that more "liberal" states (Baden , Wuerttemberg, the Hanse towns for example) had the same opportunity.
Election laws varied in the 25 member states and likewise the authority of a King, Duke, etc. varied in the member states.
Ludwig II of Bavaria certainly seems to indicate that a government wasn´t afraid to get rid of a ruler?
We both have it right at least partial the number of votes of each state goes back to the German Confederation. And with Austria Prussian hadn´t 60-65% of the area of the GF. After the German War of 1866 Austria the GF was dissolved and Prussia took the votes of Hannover , Hesse, Holstein, Nassau and the Frankfurt and got 17 votes in the North German Confederation and later in the Empire.
But i agree with you that this was a limitation of Prussia power.
The election lawas varied indeed in the states but lot of states had their own second chambers with unelected or appointed Nobles, Bishops etc.
But overall i think that the German Empire was as democratic as the UK.