I'd look at this question just in terms of suffrage, not in the responsiveness of the government to popular sentiment or factions thereof.
Some nations were federal systems (the U.S., Canada, Australia, Germany) where suffrage varied, and some were colonial entities (the British dominions) where the actual powers of government were still constrained by the mother country in some way. But I could make some broad assessments:
There's the first tier of states by suffrage:
[1] New Zealand - full universal suffrage for men and women by the 1890's puts NZ at the top of the list
[2] Australia, United States, France, Switzerland, Germany - The U.S. and Australia theoretically had universal adult male suffrage, and some of their federal states were beginning to grant women the right to vote (South Australia, three western U.S. states). Points are deducted for racial discrimination in actual practice, against aborigines in Australia and African-Americans in the American South. France had long had universal male suffrage, albeit with points deducted (again) for disenfranchisement of Algerian Arabs and Berbers. Germany had universal adult male suffrage from 1871 - how democratic the actual regime was, however, is another question.
Below that, in the [3] to [6] range are western states granting suffrage to the majority, albeit not all, adult males. This includes states such as the United Kingdom, Canada, the Netherlands, Belgium, and Scandinavia (yes, Denmark was probably no higher than 5), as well as Austria-Hungary, which was transitioning to near universal male suffrage.
And below that, [7] to[10], we have states like Spain and Italy where there was only a limited male suffrage, and the state was hardly democratic to begin with.
Latin America is harder to place. Many LA states had broad suffrage in theory, but often few voted in practice, assuming there was an election at all between monthly coups.