Again, I take your point, but I think you're overstating it. Universal manhood suffrage had been demanded during the time of Cromwell. By the 1830s, it wasn't ideology pushing the change, it was an emerging middle class that was getting wealth from the industrial revolution and wanted a political voice to match that. Perhaps someone can state with more certainty, but I believe Enlightenment literature was increasingly calling for popular sovereignty before the ARW. Pitt the Elder had already backed electoral reform.
Fair points, especially regarding the emerging middle class. What I tried getting at in the post is would the expansion of suffrage still happen
when it did? I suppose the fundamentals being what they are, the delay, if it happens, would be slight. Still...
We then have... whatever happens in America...
I'm of the school that says they get oppressed hard -- after all, that's essentially what happened whenever any other part of the Empire rebelled (Ireland, India, what have you). Any subsequent democratic movements, at least in the next few decades, get squashed hard.
For that matter, what happens in France will matter a lot...
As I see it, there's less debt, but still financial troubles. Whatever "revolution" happens likely won't be nearly as radical as OTL, and seeing as the later took so long to tackle slavery, I can't see why TTL's France would do any better.
Not convinced the Abolitionist Movement is strangled at birth... As soon as the colonists demanded more liberty, newspaper articles and cartoons immediately lashed out at their hypocrisy on slavery as it was a live issue. There's no event here to strangle the growing movement - just the lack of an extra push.
This is a well known tactic used against political adversaries, that when the opportunity presents itself, point out the hypocrisy of their actions against their stated ideals -- even when you care not a fig for neither. That's how I see Samuel Johnson's famous quip, for example.
The Somersett case showed the way the tide was really turning in Britain, and judges tend to be one of the most conservative parts of British society... I really can't see how you can prevent the British middle class from being strongly anti-slavery a half century after a court of law has banned it as "so odious" and "incapable of being introduced on any reasons, moral or political".
It's getting late for me, so I can't go into detail, but this historical interpretation of the Somersett Case is something I've come across on the board before, and its historical significance misinterpreted and overstated.
I will just say this -- what the case determined, and what the judge went to lengths to clarify, is that there was no legal basis for the establishment of slavery in English Common Law; as such, it applied to the British Isles, and to the Isles alone. This had, at the end of the day, a negligible impact of the slave economy of the British Empire.