Questions related to Land of Valencia/Spanish Levant

1. Would a pidgin/creole develop if the Western Catalan speakers of the coast freely interacted with the Aragonese speakers of the west to the point of intermarrying with each other?

2. If the whole Spanish Levant (Land of Valencia and Murcia) remained Mozarabic-speaking, what city could substitute Valencia's OTL role as cultural center? Lleida or Castelló?
 
1. Would a pidgin/creole develop if the Western Catalan speakers of the coast freely interacted with the Aragonese speakers of the west to the point of intermarrying with each other?

2. If the whole Spanish Levant (Land of Valencia and Murcia) remained Mozarabic-speaking, what city could substitute Valencia's OTL role as cultural center? Lleida or Castelló?

What about having Valencia not settled with Occitans and with Aragonese instead, Valencia was settled with Occitans that is why they identified with them and have Valencia settled with Aragonese, that would be interesting.
 
1. Would a pidgin/creole develop if the Western Catalan speakers of the coast freely interacted with the Aragonese speakers of the west to the point of intermarrying with each other?

Isn't Valencian largely the product of this already? Just with Castilian replacing Aragonese as the Iberorromance partner in the later centuries.

2. If the whole Spanish Levant (Land of Valencia and Murcia) remained Mozarabic-speaking, what city could substitute Valencia's OTL role as cultural center? Lleida or Castelló?

Why does Valencia remain Mozarabic? Is it never taken and remains Muslim ruled indefinitely? In that case there would be no Valencian culture as such and Castellon would be as much a part of Catalonia as Tarragona (don't get the comment about Lleida - that's tied for the title of deepest part of deepest Catalonia with Girona).

Is it taken, but remains Muslim majority? That's hard to believe. It was standard policy to clear most of the cities of Muslims and replace them with settlers, and that's when the Muslims didn't leave on their own accord.
 
Isn't Valencian largely the product of this already? Just with Castilian replacing Aragonese as the Iberorromance partner in the later centuries.
I don't see much of a change, actually. Koiné, maybe, as a Bacchanalia member commented


Why does Valencia remain Mozarabic? Is it never taken and remains Muslim ruled indefinitely?
What I really mean was Valencians remained Mozarabic-speaking but their religion is Roman Catholicism, and they practiced openly.
 
What do you mean, is that Mozarabic would become a prestige language in the post-conquest kingdom of Valencia, used in legal documents and such. That's hard to believe, given that the kingdom's nobility would be Aragonese and Catalan speaking. If it happened still, and going back to your first post, then Valencia's branch of Mozarabic would be known as THE Valencian language, and the center of Valencian culture would be none other than Valencia itself.
 
What do you mean, is that Mozarabic would become a prestige language in the post-conquest kingdom of Valencia, used in legal documents and such. That's hard to believe, given that the kingdom's nobility would be Aragonese and Catalan speaking.
Exactly, although initially used in popular literature only,
 
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