Question

I am confused on the relationship between the Spanish Crown and the Jesuits. To start with, it was my understanding that the Spanish had great control over the Catholic Church as far as appointments and power relationships go. Yet later on it seems like the Jesuit Order was totally financially and politically seperate from the Crown during the colonial period. Which led in 1768 to the removal of all Jesuit priests from the colonies and seizure of their properties.

So when did this transition from weak Church to strong Church occur? Also what "what ifs" could possibly arrise from this?
 
The jesuits were simply too competent. Yes, the spanish crown had a great deal of independence form the vatican -the "Spain control the pope" is an exageration, actually; they simply ignored him when it suited them, and they were too powerful for Rome to protest (too much). Basically, they had what Henry VIII wanted.

But just because Rome had no much power, if does not mean than the Crown controlled the church. The spanish church -most the churches, actually, but it became very clear in Spain- were a real meritocracy in a time where aristocratic nepotism (and incompetence) followed the norm. It had its share of nepotism, but is was maily centered in Rome (corruption on the vatican was the main cause for the Protestan reform).


Spain had very intelligent and learned churchmen, with, by the time they were in a position to meddel in mundane politics, a lot of experience in the church political infighting. By contrast, the nobles had their position because their daddy got them. For that reason, the spanish church had a lot of real power.

As the centuries went, the power -and arrogance- or the church grew, and its competence lessened, so the kings decided to cut its power at the knees. The jesuits were the more visible and powerful order, and they were expelled from spain in 1767 (they would return later when the king power and resolution proved temporary, but later in the nineteenth centurry the churhc lands would be "nationalized", again mostly temporarily).
 
thanks for the replies.

Did church tithes go to the crown or to the vatican, because didn't in france the tithes went to the crown which is one of the reasons that france was so powerful?

Could spain tax the jesuits in such a manner or was the company of jesus too powerful or skilled to tax at all?
 
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