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Did Hitler start pressuring Poland for territorial changes before or after Britain issued a guarantee to Poland?

I know Hitler only went so far as to call the nonaggression pact with Poland null and void after the guarantee was made.

I know that the guarantee was issued shortly after the occupation of Prague, but I don’t know the pacing of changes to German demands and propaganda vis-à-vis Poland. Ever since the 1934 Nonaggression Pact with Poland until at least the Munich meeting, Hitler tried to keep ethno-territorial problems with Poland “on ice”.

What I wonder is if Hitler-Ribbentropp-Goebbels began to turn up the heat on Poland- a) right after the occupation of Sudetenland (Nov 38), b) not until after the occupation of Bohemia (Mar 39), c) not until Chamberlain issued his guarantees (Apr 39), or d) somewhen between a, b or c.

Did Chamberlain even check with the Poles before issuing his guarantee? Did he just preemptively announce the guarantee because it seemed like Germany's logical next target in general, or was a specific bilateral German-Polish crisis coming to Europe's attention when Chamberlain made his choice?
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