Question: Male Jagiellonian Fertility Problems?

The Jagiellonian males seemed to have had a poor showing as far as fertility was concerned, with Sigismund II being the best known example. However, if one looks at other royal males of his family, with exception of Sigismund's father and paternal grandfather producing heirs seems to have been a problem.

Limiting it to those who actually married (sorry Wladyslaw III and Jan I of Poland):

Wladyslaw II had four children over the course of his four marriages of which only one left further issue.
Kasimierz IV is the only Jagiellon royal male (besides his dad) have more than one surviving son.
Wladyslaw VII was married three times and only got lucky third time around, and Ludwik/Lajos II was hardly anyone's idea of a healthy male heir at birth (premature and puny), yet Wlad never remarried after his third wife's death. Nor did he leave any bastards.
Alexander of Poland had only two miscarried/stilllborn children. Again no bastards.
Sigismund I the Old married twice and had a few kids (bastards included), but he had poor luck siring boys and so Sigismund II Augustus was the last Jagiellon king of Poland.
Sigismund II was married three times, and his only claim to paternity was a pregnancy by his third wife (ICR if this was only a rumor or if she was actually pregnant, but the child miscarried or was born dead). Even his bastard daughter's paternity is questioned.

All this leads me to believe that unless their wives were ALL bad matches genetically (how is this possible if they come from lineages as different as Hohenzollern, Foix, Habsburg and Trastamara?) these guys had a problem in their pants. The girls in the family seem to have bucked this trend, Anna of Hungary, wife of Emperor Ferdinand popped out a football team, and several of Sigismund I's daughters were well past their first youth, but still managed kids.

So, my actual question is this, even if Ludvik/Lajos II survived Mohacs, would that necessarily mean that he and his Austrian wife are assured of kids? Or put another way, at least one or two sons? Or is the Hungarian line of Jagiellons just as doomed as the Polish line?
 
Younger sons of Casimir IV did not need to marry until they became kings, so they did't need to provide kingdom with a heir. Sigismund I married in his 40s, when he was king already but he had mistress and bastards before. And he was just unlucky with sons-Bona provided him with many daughters but only one son, in 1527 she was pregnant with male child but king took her to hunting party where she fell from her horse and miscarried, and she could not have children anymore.
For Vladislav of Hungary explanation is easy-he never consumated his first marriage, and his second wife-widow of Matthias Corvinus was post-childbearing age when he married her.
Sigismund Augustus likely became sterile as result of some veneric disease-he started his sexual activity very early (lost his virginity at age 15 with Italian lady-in-waiting of his mother) and have a lot of mistresses later in life.
 
Any reason WHY Vladislav never consumated his first marriage? I know he never actually met the girl in question IIRC, and the non-consumation was the reason that he felt no qualms about marrying Beatrice. And how would that make a difference on later events? If he can't marry Beatrice because his first wife has maybe given him a child, would he still become king of Hungary? And Beatrice might've been past childbearing age, but she had no children with Mátyas Corvinus before that either (why?).

As to Sigismund II I didn't know that, and a venereal disease would explaincwhy the third wife was only pregnant once and miscarried.
 
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