Question About the Aragonese Language

So, I've read that some people think Aragonese is basically just a dialect of Castillian Spanish. If Aragon and Castille had never been united into Spain, do you think it would would have diverged enough over the centuries to become its own language distinct from Castillian?

Just looking at the names of The Kings of Aragon I see that names like Juan and Jaime in Castillian become Chuan and Chaime in Aragonese and Alfonso becomes Alifonso, so at least from that perspective they look distinct from Castillian.

Thoughts?
 
I think Aragonese not just became one of the official languages of the Crown of Aragon, but also in neighboring Navarre.

OTL, Aragonese language lost most of its territory in the 19th and 20th century.
 
I think Aragonese not just became one of the official languages of the Crown of Aragon, but also in neighboring Navarre.

OTL, Aragonese language lost most of its territory in the 19th and 20th century.

Is there a way to expand Aragonese language territory?
 
So, looking at names of Kings and Queens on the aragonese wiki, I see Chorche for Jorge/George; Chaime for Jaime/James; Chuan for Juan/John...

So is the Ch pronounced like the J in Castilian Spanish? Or is is pronounced in a different manner?
 

Kingpoleon

Banned
So, looking at names of Kings and Queens on the aragonese wiki, I see Chorche for Jorge/George; Chaime for Jaime/James; Chuan for Juan/John...

So is the Ch pronounced like the J in Castilian Spanish? Or is is pronounced in a different manner?

I always thought it has a y sound tossed in there, as in, "Hyw".
 

Delvestius

Banned
Perhaps now, but historically I think it had more of a distinction as the tongue of the rowdy mountaineers. When Aragon conquered Catalonia, they adopted Catalan as their official language, which is the point where Aragonese began to diminish.
 
So, I've read that some people think Aragonese is basically just a dialect of Castillian Spanish.

It's related to Castillian, but is not a dialect of it. The two are not entirely mutually intelligible. Here is some information on it.

There is of course a dialect of Castillian spoken in that region nowadays, but that is not the same thing as Aragonese.
 
Perhaps now, but historically I think it had more of a distinction as the tongue of the rowdy mountaineers. When Aragon conquered Catalonia, they adopted Catalan as their official language, which is the point where Aragonese began to diminish.

Aragón didn't conquer Catalonia. Both polities felt in personal union under the House of Barcelona. Because thagt, and because Catalonia was richer than Aragon, the political and economical center, despite the name of the crown, was in Catalonia, or more preciselly in Barcelona.

It's related to Castillian, but is not a dialect of it. The two are not entirely mutually intelligible. Here is some information on it.

There is of course a dialect of Castillian spoken in that region nowadays, but that is not the same thing as Aragonese.

This, Aragonese, like Astur-Leonese, was(is) a different if related langauge to Castilian. If the two crowns had not merged, it would have been probably marginalized by catalan, I'm afraid.

And the "Ch" in aragonese is no pronounced like the "J" in castilian, but it's pronounced in a way similar to the pronunciation of "X" in classical spanish. In many words in spanish, the "J" has occupied the place that used to occupy the "X" (with exceptions, like México, that is pronounced like Méjico, and sometimes written like that)
 
And the "Ch" in aragonese is no pronounced like the "J" in castilian, but it's pronounced in a way similar to the pronunciation of "X" in classical spanish. In many words in spanish, the "J" has occupied the place that used to occupy the "X" (with exceptions, like México, that is pronounced like Méjico, and sometimes written like that)
So, "CH" in Aragonese is the same pronounciation as "X" in Galician language, more or less?
 
Aragón didn't conquer Catalonia. Both polities felt in personal union under the House of Barcelona. Because thagt, and because Catalonia was richer than Aragon, the political and economical center, despite the name of the crown, was in Catalonia, or more preciselly in Barcelona.

(...)

That's because Aragon was a kingdom, whereas Barcelona was considered to be a county (and Catalonia was a principality). It's like what later happened with Prussia-Brandenburg and Sardinia-Piedmont.

Language wise it probably would (as Niko Malaka wrote) have ended up being marginalized by Catalan.
 
So I was reading La Historia de Español today and the authors said that prior to the 13th century, Castilian was pretty much looked down upon and the literate people of Castile would rather write and read in Aragonese because at the time it was far more prestigious. Does this mean that it would have been possible for Castile to adopt officially Aragonese as its lingua franca or is that entirely out of the cards?
 
So I was reading La Historia de Español today and the authors said that prior to the 13th century, Castilian was pretty much looked down upon and the literate people of Castile would rather write and read in Aragonese because at the time it was far more prestigious. Does this mean that it would have been possible for Castile to adopt officially Aragonese as its lingua franca or is that entirely out of the cards?

I think the prestige language in most of medieval Iberia was the Galaico-Portuguese rather than the Aragonese. For example, Alfonso X of Castille "The Wise" wrote a famous work in Galaico-Portuguese...
 
I think the prestige language in most of medieval Iberia was the Galaico-Portuguese rather than the Aragonese. For example, Alfonso X of Castille "The Wise" wrote a famous work in Galaico-Portuguese...

Well the book said both Galician and Aragonese were more prestigious used more often than Castillian but that Galician was more used for poetry and literary works than Aragonese.
 
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