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The idea that France might have allowed Germany to rearm the way it did in OTL during the 1930s seems like the sort of thing that would get mercilessly mocked as ASB in timelines where this didn't happen. Suppose that an alternate post-WWI Germany decides to rearm.

a) Can it be expected to get away with any major rearmament (as in, approaching military parity with France) at all, or was France's inaction a fluke?

b) Can it be expected to get away with remilitarizing the Rhineland before having fully rearmed? Was OTL a lucky stroke of luck, or can such political events in France as to prevent the possibility of reaction be expected to occur? And what of the odds that whoever is in charge of Germany decides to risk checking if France really is as paralyzed as it seems?

c) ... because remilitarizing the Rhineland seems to be effectively a prerequisite for any serious military action ... really? If it is not remilitarized, Germany would need to be ab-so-lutely sure that France would not attack ... or that it could be stopped despite Germany not starting out with any forces west of the Rhine?

Thoughts?
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