I am making this discussion here because I realize that debating this topic in the other thread is derailing it.
A total of 5 major claims to be Roman Empire succession do exist: Ottoman Empire was one of them. Also, 2 claims were from Italy, and rest were Germany and Russia. All the claims were obviously very weak.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Third_Rome
Apparently some people disagree.They made a lot of arguments in the other thread which frankly I don't quite understand at all.No. This should not be a question.
I read the tread and i think most of them agreed that it isnt. They just didnt like the arguments the other side brought up - like rejecting the idea out of hand. The more intellectual part was the question when does a state become a different polity and what are the requirements for that. But i suspect that at that point some of them just argued for arguments sake partly because of the offensive tone some of the people arguing against them used.Apparently some people disagree.They made a lot of arguments in the other thread which frankly I don't quite understand at all.
Minus that one time Mehmet the Conquerer called himself "Kaiser-in-Rum", but as someone pointed out that's analagous to Alexander the Great's "Lord of Asia" title.The Ottomans always preferred Islamic titles to that of Roman ones if I recall.
Minus that one time Mehmet the Conquerer called himself "Kaiser-in-Rum", but as someone point out that's analagous to Alexander the Great's "King of Asia" title.
Also, if you consider the Ottomans to be a continuation of the ERE then you have to accept the Ostrogothic Kingdom as a continuation of the WRE given that Zeno and Anastasius considered themselves rulers of the whole the empire, with the Germans ruling Italy for them.
The Greeks (and other ethnicities) had been officially full Romans since at least 212 CE. If you asked a Greek speaking resident of the empire what did he identify as, he would not say "Greek", he would instinctively say "Roman".It doesn't matter whether they were Romans or not, it mattered that they were ruled by the Roman Empire. If the Greeks could be the dominant ethnicity in and rule the Roman Empire, why not Turks?
Not so sure: the Russians Czars did have familial links to the Paleologos dynasty thanks to Ivan III's marriage to Sophia Paleologa. Even the Romanovs were descendants of the last dynasty to rule the Byzantine Empire thanks to that. Plus, Russia is an Orthodox country, just like Byzantium had been. Sure, dynasty and religion didn't guarantee succession in Rome and Byzantium but I'd argue this makes it a stronger claim than the other, even if that doesn't make the Russian Empire a continuation of Rome from my personnal POV.And the Russian one is the weakest....
No.The Romanovs themselves actually didn't have any blood relations to Sophia.Sophia's line died out with the Rurikids.Iirc,the closest relatives to the Palaeologos dynasty right now is actually the Spanish Royal family.Not so sure: the Russians Czars did have familial links to the Paleologos dynasty thanks to Ivan III's marriage to Sophia Paleologa. Even the Romanovs were descendants of the last dynasty to rule the Byzantine Empire thanks to that. Plus, Russia is an Orthodox country, just like Byzantium had been. Sure, dynasty and religion didn't guarantee succession in Rome and Byzantium but I'd argue this makes it a stronger claim than the other, even if that doesn't make the Russian Empire a continuation of Rome from my personnal POV.
No. This should not be a question.