Uhm...did...did you even read what you linked?
"I also conceded that the Italians living in Latium today are likely the same people genetically"
What?
At some point between the 7th century and the 9th century A.DThat's where you said it. So again, I'm going to have to ask... where's the break?
Now I will ask you a similar question, when did the Franks become French? Let's see if you can find a specific date like you dare me to do (which is impossibile) if it's that easy.
You will agree that according to the Roman definition post Caracalla, that people who don't live in the Roman Empire are non-Roman barbarians correct?2) You keep calling the Latins barbarians. No doubt, if the Romans saw the Byzantines they'd say the same thing.
Give me a quote and a date. That statement is far too vague for me to make any kind of rebuttal.In fact, they weren't considered barbarians by the Byzantines until later. If yo look at earlymedieval documents, they were referred to as Romans after Odoacer.
Really, last time I checked Constantine moved the capital there when he was sole emperor (not Eastern Emperor SOLE Emperor) in 330 A.D. According to you the Roman Empire ended in 395, so yes after 330 the heartland of the Roman Empire was Constantinople and it would remain as such for a subsequent 1000 years.3) No. Constantinople was the heartland of the ERE.
Heraclius changed the language of the Roman state from Latin to Greek via legal edict in 620. From that point onwards the language of the Roman state was Greek, case closed, argument over.5) There it is. Latin isn't a foreign language. Latin was their language. Greek was the alien language and many aristocrats learned it (but not all).
He probably wouldn't but I honestly don't care because it's irrelevant.Are you really saying that Cicero would agree with the Byzantines that his language was barbaric and scythian?