Poland's Royal Elections

Does anyone know if it would be possible for Wladislaw IV's illegitimate son, Wladislaw Konstanty Vasa, Graf Wasenau (1635-1698) to be elected as king of Poland following Jan II's death?

I read somewhere that the son of the late king was prefered under the elective monarchy and that Jakub Sobieski's failure to secure the throne was unusual in this regard (the prince de Conti and elector of Saxony both garnering more votes than he). I was just wondering is the same would apply to Wladislaw Konstanty or would he go the same way as Janos Corvinus?
 
I don't think so. First, he was an illegitimate son, and his mother was not of a noble birth. Second, AFAIK he had no support among noblemen nor magnates, he was also unknown to the, since IIRC he spent most of his adult life abroad. Third, John II didn't die as the king, but abdicated in 1668 (he died 4 years later). When he abdicated he was extremely unpopular which, IMHO, would have destroyed any chance for a Vasa candidate.
 
What if part of the reason for his unpopularity is that Graf Wasenau is leading the opposition? I mean, he spent most of his life abroad, I think he died in Rome where he had served as Queen Christina's chamberlain. What if part of the reason he's abroad is because he's politically undesirable in Warsaw?
 
I don't think so. Wasenau is still a bastard, even if of royal blood; his mother is not noble; he has no money or influence but by his uncle, John II. IMO Wasenau might become a figurehead for a coalition of magnates at best (Władysław IV was rather well remembered, which allowed John II to be elected), but even that is doubtful. Polish magnates didn't need figureheads at the time.
You may try to make him a political genius (or at least a very talented politician), a great orator, etc. But his origin is a very significant disadvantage.
 
Who was his mother? Because every genealogy I've consulted simply states "illegitimate" or "illegitimate by lady unknown"
 
Try this... http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jadwiga_%C5%81uszkowska

Despite her being described here as a noble lady, other sources (press articles, mostly, but also fragments of books) strongly suggest she was of burgher origin. She might be called a noble lady because the king had her marry a member of his court, Jan Wypyski, a nobleman; OTOH, she might be a noblewoman living in town.
Another thing: her father was a merchant; since 1633 every nobleman who settled in a town as a merchant would loose his status; however, her father died in 1627, so he might have been a nobleman.
 
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Is there any other information on the girl in the portrait attached to the page?

Is there a way that Wladyslaw IV (who IMO had some pretty good ideas i.e. building a navy, reconquering Silesia, modernizing the army, etc); could've found a way to rule a la Charles II - without parliament because someone else was pensioning him? And if he could rule without parliament (albeit for a period), might we see more of his ideas carried through?
 
And who would be paying the Polish king? No Polish magnate would sponsor the king, since magnates didn't want too strong central power. The main source of income to the Crown were taxes, and they were established by the Parliament (the Sejm). And the Sejm was not interested in any offensive wars and considered a strong army a danger for noblemen's liberties.
The girl in the portrait is most probably Jadwiga's daughter, although I do not know her name; AFAICR she died as a child.
 
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