Poland-Lithuania elects dynasties, not kings

In 1791, the May 3 constitution made it so the Commonwealth elected a Dynasty that would be hereditary. Poland was snuffed from existence four years later so nothing ever came of this.

So WI in the Union of Lublin in 1569, Sigismund II Augustus made it so Poland-Lithuania would elect a dynasty (instead of just a king) to follow the Jageillions.

Who would they pick?
and How would this effect the history of the commonwealth?
 
In 1791, the May 3 constitution made it so the Commonwealth elected a Dynasty that would be hereditary. Poland was snuffed from existence four years later so nothing ever came of this.

So WI in the Union of Lublin in 1569, Sigismund II Augustus made it so Poland-Lithuania would elect a dynasty (instead of just a king) to follow the Jageillions.

Who would they pick?
and How would this effect the history of the commonwealth?

Were the Jagi-whatsit kings formally elected ? A lot of monarchies had a process where the nobles formally elected the heir as the next king (and IIRC Denmark kept this into near-modern times), so in a sense nothing necessarily would change ?

I think the problem might be the Swedish connection; electing a Vasa was always going to run the risk that the Swedish succession could get caught up with the Polish-Lithuanian, and that any Vasa king would focus more on his ancestral homeland than on his new one.

We saw what use electing a Valois was - he ran away ! But maybe if a Conde had become king later they would have forged a dynasty that lasted ?

Best Regards
Grey Wolf
 
Were the Jagi-whatsit kings formally elected ? A lot of monarchies had a process where the nobles formally elected the heir as the next king (and IIRC Denmark kept this into near-modern times), so in a sense nothing necessarily would change ?

The Jagiellons were elected. Procedure was that first the council of aristocrats elected a king and then the decision had to be reafirmed by a gathering of nobles and bourgeoisie from the biggest cities. Although in a case of Sigismund II Augustus there was the vivente rege election (during a life of the previous king) - although it was an exception...

Personally, I believe that there was no chance that the whole dynasty would be elected - 1. You don't know how the decendants will turn out and 2. Why let the possibility for getting concessions every time a new king was elected?
 
The Jagiellons were elected. Procedure was that first the council of aristocrats elected a king and then the decision had to be reafirmed by a gathering of nobles and bourgeoisie from the biggest cities. Although in a case of Sigismund II Augustus there was the vivente rege election (during a life of the previous king) - although it was an exception...

Personally, I believe that there was no chance that the whole dynasty would be elected - 1. You don't know how the decendants will turn out and 2. Why let the possibility for getting concessions every time a new king was elected?
Jagiellons as kings of Poland were elected, but as great duces of Lithuania they were hereditary rulers.
 
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