When Richard I of England went to get crowned, he ordered the Jews to not be allowed in the religious buildings of London like churches (not that they would have anything to do there anyways...), be present for his ceremony, and expelled those in the court (I guess leftovers from his father's?)
Shortly after this, mobs of people in London almost killed one prominent Jew called by the locals "Benedict the Jew" and went on to kill many Jews. A rumor spread that Richard ordered the Jews to be purged. This soon spread to the other cities. One temporary chronicler called it "holocaustum" (yeah... the term is at least that old)
Richard was not happy.
https://books.google.com/books?id=5...zAA#v=onepage&q=richard i holocaustum&f=false
But why? I know the Jews were not popular in England at that time. But how did "Get them out of my court, churches, and crowning ceremony" morph into "purge them all"? How did this end up into a non-sanctioned pogom? Richard actually had to go around London telling people to knock it off
Shortly after this, mobs of people in London almost killed one prominent Jew called by the locals "Benedict the Jew" and went on to kill many Jews. A rumor spread that Richard ordered the Jews to be purged. This soon spread to the other cities. One temporary chronicler called it "holocaustum" (yeah... the term is at least that old)
Richard was not happy.
https://books.google.com/books?id=5...zAA#v=onepage&q=richard i holocaustum&f=false
But why? I know the Jews were not popular in England at that time. But how did "Get them out of my court, churches, and crowning ceremony" morph into "purge them all"? How did this end up into a non-sanctioned pogom? Richard actually had to go around London telling people to knock it off