Plausibility check: Reverse Huns scenario

Assuming a Rome more successful than OTL (no Teutoburg disaster, conquest of Germania and a Danube-Vistula border), what's the plausibility of Germanic tribes fleeing east from Rome and caucusing havoc/conquest in central and east Asia?
 
I'll go with "none". For one there weren't that many of them to begin with. For two they were disorganised. For three they didn't really held any advantage over their neighbours.

First two reasons were also part of why Romans didn't really push for conquest of Germania.

(on a side note, it's costumary to wait at least 24 hours before bumping to give every active member chance to see it first)
 
The conditions just don't compare. Basically, Rome wanted to ally to or conquer the tribes as new subjects, so causing a mass migration would be extremely accidental - why would the Germanics flee?
 
Top