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With any PoD after 1340 (by which time, the Ottoman Beylik definitely existed) would it have been plausible for the Ottomans (and all other Turks) to never conquer any of Europe? In OTL they crossed over to occupy Gallipolli in 1354 and expanded from there.
What is the maximum level of success the House of Osman could have achieved in southwestern Asia if it is unable to conquer and tax any of Europe?