Plausibility check: Limited Female Suffrage Before Universal Male Suffrage?

Perhaps something along the lines of "those ladies who inherit land from their fathers or husbands may vote". If it's possible what would be the most likely circumstances for it to come about? What would be the social/cultural effects?
 

Sachyriel

Banned
Ladies who are not pregnant or do not have surviving children may vote seems to be a likely condition as well, since it would give some ladies voting rights but those who are doing the whole "Mother" thing are excluded since they're thought to be too busy to pay any attention to politics.

Not that I, in this day and age, agree in anyway, but you know the men of that day would.
 
This certainly seems possible, the vote being given to widows and spinsters. I think even mothers might be able to vote, especially if suffrage is based on property and or wealth qualifications, assuming their son(s) is underage. You could seem these women voting by proxy, a sort of regency until they reach voting age...
 
Not merely plausible, but real. In New Jersey, from 1776 to 1807, the franchise was limited to those "inhabitants" with sufficient wealth/property - not all "men." Thus, widows and spinsters with sufficient property of their own (though not wives, for at the time, wives could not hold property) were able to vote. According to wiki, there were widespread allegations of electoral rivals using 'petticoat electors' (women who were not actually qualified to vote) to win election.
 
In my home village in France, the voting system for the village government used to be "one head of family, one vote". The head of the family was usually the father of the family, of course, but his widow got the right to vote on his death. Perhaps this system could be somehow implemented in the US?
 
In Uxbridge, Massachusetts in 1756 a widow with no living male relatives was given the right to vote in town meeting, making Lydia Taft (1712-1778) the first women to be able to vote in the colonial America.
 
Depends on the society. Some societies had noble women more equal to noble men than was the case of their counterparts in the lower classes. I think in Ancient Egypt, women could own property and have some control over their lives, whereas contemperary neighbors treated their women as property.
 
IIRC South Africa, or at least the Cape introduced universal white female sufferage in the 1930s, while still having a restricted franchise for non white voters.
 
Heads of households seems the best way to get this; thus where the man has died, the woman is head of the household for voting purposes, but if she remarries loses this right

Best Regards
Grey Wolf
 
In the southern states of the USA, de-facto, non-whites had very limited franchise until the enforcements of the 1965 Voting Rights Act, whilst white women had suffrage in 1920.
 
One of the problems of the Suffrage movement in England was a fear that giving women voting rights on the same limited basis as men might actually have sharpened class bias in voting rights.
 
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