Plausibility Check: French or Anglo-Soviet War after WWII

-U.K. and France are not allied
-The United States is not involved militarily
-This war would occur after WWII, or at least a World War II comparable to OTL (Germany vs. Soviet Union and any Western powers)
-The Soviet Union should be relatively similar to OTL

Given these circumstances, how can a war develop between the Soviet Union and the U.K. or France. This war should be a somewhat isolated conflict, meaning France is not involved if the U.K. is at war and vice-versa. I think this alone would break the plausibility of the scenario. The U.S. can offer support diplomatically and through aid, but must not formally be at war.

Either power can be allied with any other countries but not each other and the U.S.
 
I suppose France in the 50's whilst Indochina was fighting for independence? Have the USSR fund and supply the rebels, have France find out.

It's still technically a local conflict between a colonial power and rebels which stops anyone else getting involved, but with Soviet "volunteers" it'll basically be a conflict between the two nations.
 
I suppose France in the 50's whilst Indochina was fighting for independence? Have the USSR fund and supply the rebels, have France find out.

It's still technically a local conflict between a colonial power and rebels which stops anyone else getting involved, but with Soviet "volunteers" it'll basically be a conflict between the two nations.

That's a good idea, I toyed around with that thought, though with American troops against Soviets in Vietnam.

I guess what I'm looking for though is a more European conflict; I'm having doubts its even possible when the British-French relationship is considered.
 
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