Plausibility check: Bilingual Scotland

With a POD post, say, 1200, is it plausible to have a Scotland in more or less its modern borders that's substantially bilingual - i.e., both English/Scots and Gaelic are spoken by, say, 40%+ of the population, and both are acceptable in elite discourse? Bonus points if it still ends up in the UK.
 
Given that the English-speaking area has a substantially bigger population than the Gaelic-speaking area, this is hard.

The easiest way is for Scotland to lose territory to England, whilst remaining independent.
 
Given that the English-speaking area has a substantially bigger population than the Gaelic-speaking area, this is hard.

Now sure. In 1200 not so much. The current demographics owe a lot to things like the highland clearances.

The conflict between the gaelic speaking highlanders and the scottish-norman lowland nobility defined scotland as an independent state. A lot of areas that were gaelic speaking in 1200 were conquered and de gaelicised by the scottish nobility.

You just need a different policy by the scottish kings for that to change.

1066 would be far easier for a pod than 1200, by the latter the davidian reforms would have happened and the great independent kings of moray, strathclyde and the isles who could have seized the crown from the house of dunkeld were already killed. But I think it's perfectly plausible even for a much later pod.
 
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