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OK--basically, what I am curious about is this. Let's say that cooler heads somehow prevail in July 1914 after Franz Ferdinand's assassination and thus a general European war does *not* break out that year (I am concerned that having Franz Ferdinand survive this assassination attempt will simply result in World War I breaking out in 1916 or 1917 when the Ausgleich collapses, which would *not* work for this scenario of mine). Since Germany cannot get its war before the Russian Great Military Program is completed in this scenario, World War I is delayed by a long while in this TL. Eventually German-British relations improve once it becomes clear that Germany's power in Europe relative to Russia's is weakening and that Germany has no intention of restarting its naval arms race with Britain (also, Kaiser Wilhelm II gradually becomes less of a buffoon after 1916 or 1917 in this TL). Eventually (possibly in the 1920s or 1930s) a grand alliance of Britain, Germany, Austria-Hungary, the Ottoman Empire, and Japan is formed. The purpose of this alliance would be to contain a Russia which is gradually becoming more and more powerful.

Now, what I am wondering is this--in the event that World War I will break out in the 1940s or 1950s in this TL (assuming that the development of nuclear weapons occurs somewhat later than in our TL), could Russia be willing to utilize a "Schlieffen-Style Plan" in this TL's World War I? In other words, would Russia (along with France, who would still want to reacquire Alsace-Lorraine) be willing to focus first on Germany and Austria-Hungary in this TL's World War I while "playing defense" in the Caucasus, in the Far East, and, if necessary, in Central Asia? The purpose of this would be for France and Russia to quickly knock Austria-Hungary and Germany out of the war using overwhelming force (and before Britain can make a significant contribution to Germany's and Austria-Hungary's defense). Afterwards, Russia can go on the offensive in the Caucasus, in the Far East, and, if necessary, in Central Asia as well.

Would such a Russian "Schlieffen-Style Plan" in the event of World War I breaking out in the 1940s or 1950s (since I don't think that France and Russia would want to fight so many countries at once earlier than the 1940s or so) be realistic/plausible? After all, in this TL's World War I, Russia and France would be smartest to mostly focus on one or two enemies at a time rather than to go on the offensive everywhere at once and to suffer a bunch of crushing defeats afterwards.

Anyway, any thoughts on this?
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