Is this scenario plausible? :
Cooler heads prevail in 1914 and thus WWI doesn't break out back then. After Russia's Great Military Program is completed in 1917, Britain moves away from France and Russia and towards Germany for balance-of-power reasons. Over the next couple of decades, a broad anti-Russian alliance is formed with Britain, Germany, Austria-Hungary, the Ottoman Empire, and Japan as members. (Both Italy and Romania remain nominal but unreliable allies of Germany in this TL.) As the decades go on, Russia's military and economic power significantly increases (in large part due to large-scale French investments in Russia). In turn, this results in Russia gradually becoming much more assertive in various parts of the world (something that might very well still be true even if Tsarism eventually collapses in Russia in this TL; after all, even a non-Tsarist Russian government might very well be pro-expansionism).
Anyway, around the middle of the 20th century (as in, around 1950; for the record, the development of nuclear weapons is delayed by at least a couple of decades in this TL), Russia feels sufficiently confident in its military abilities to begin undermining the international order. Thus, Russia sparks some crisis somewhere worldwide in an attempt to expand its own territory and causes the broad anti-Russian alliance mentioned above to declare war on Russia. Afterwards, France enters this war on the side of its Russian ally. Thus, World War I breaks out about 35 years later in this TL than it does in our TL.
Anyway, is such a scenario plausible?