I think it [a Chinese industrial revolution] would happen, but I don't know when, nothing before the European introduction of these tecnics seem to have indicated that they was close to develop them themself. But I think it unavoidable that they would have develop at some moment, but it could be centuries out in the future.
If it's that far into the future, whoever inherited Europe might have beaten them to it. But it's definitely something for me to consider.
There are genetic markers, but the problem genetic people around the Mediterranean Sea are closer related to each others than to other groups. So a disease which hit a South Italian are more likely to hit a Turk than a Swede.
I see. So if the plague were to hit the southern Europeans harder, it would likely hit the Turks and Arabs (and Iranians?) just as hard. But if it hit the northern Europeans harder, who takes over their land? I would suppose that southern Europeans, being closest, would simply move north, but the Turks could also sweep in from the west and try to take the land. The Arabs might shove up through Spain, but since the Spanish are southern Europeans, they wouldn't be any weaker than they were in OTL. I'll have to do some research into who held the Ottomans out of Europe (and how) in OTL.
EDIT: Actually, the Turks wouldn't want the land due to the aforementioned Muslim restrictions. Damn.
Well A) disease doesn't interact with genes, it interacts with the expressed products of those genes, the genetic polymorphisms used to identify populations often have little to no phenotypic effect. B) you see changes in allele frequencies between populations , very rarely do you see population specific genes (even stuff like skin colour is produced by an assortment of genes and might have a different basis in each european individual) and C) humans actually have very little genetic variation, it would be far easier to make a lineage specific disease for chimps.
It would be nearly impossible to have a disease that in the course of its action would only latch onto an certain genotype because when you get down to cell surfaces everyones pretty much the same, and there would be tremendious selective pressure for the disease not to be so picky.
Yes, I know the bacteria wouldn't directly interact with the genes themselves. (My microbiology knowledge isn't that rusty... ) I was thinking of things like high blood pressure and heart disease, which although they aren't spread by pathogens, generally affect black people differently than whites. But if cell surfaces are all the same, then the plague can't target any one geography-specific phenotype (and its underlying genotype) more than another? I hadn't intended for the plague to specifically attack only one, but just to affect one more than the others.
I seem to recall that malaria doesn't affect people with sickle-cell anemia as adversely as those without it. This difference is only on the scale of alleles of one gene, although it's not one of the genes which are involved in "racial" phenotypes. Still, couldn't this theoretically mean that the plague (or at least some disease) could do more damage to someone based on geographic genetic markers?
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