Assuming Charles I dies other than by formal execution.
In 1648 the army was angry with Parliament. There was the demand for manhood suffrage.
Suppose a subtle King Charles |II suggests he would accept a Parliament elected by all men.
If there could have been a relatively honest election with manhood suffrage might the KING have persuaded a majority of Englishmen to vote for his people rather than anyone else
In 1648 the army was angry with Parliament. There was the demand for manhood suffrage.
Suppose a subtle King Charles |II suggests he would accept a Parliament elected by all men.
If there could have been a relatively honest election with manhood suffrage might the KING have persuaded a majority of Englishmen to vote for his people rather than anyone else