Would it have been at all possible to counteract the gag laws and what not, and ultimately peacefully outlaw slavery? Thoughts? If not, what would this have required from an alternate US?
Would it have been at all possible to counteract the gag laws and what not, and ultimately peacefully outlaw slavery? Thoughts? If not, what would this have required from an alternate US?
No. Slavery is what made plantation agriculture profitable in the US in the antebellum period, and plantation agriculture is what made the slave states - and slave holders - rich.
Very rich, in fact.
Abolition was as much an economic revolution as a political one; the American Civil War was fought because those with power in antebellum America were unwilling to give it up peacefully.
Best,
Yes, that's true. All right. I was trying to do a plausible American monarchy TL, (which is a bit of an oxymoron), and I was trying to do something else with the 1860s, other than your average CSA. I had something writhed about peaceful, gradual manumission; is that at all possible?
A more successful Shays' Rebellion leads to an abortive Constitutional Convention, which ultimately ends in the reinstatement of the Articles of Confederation. Washington, and Hamilton, his new ally, believe that America needs more centralized leadership, and thus, the Federal (Empire?) of America is created, with a Jefferson-led Republic of America seceding soon afterwards.
I'm perfectly aware that this is ridiculous, but the idea of a pseudo-Roman (ITTL, Washington DC is called New Rome) empire in North America is really appealing to me. Anyway, I had an idea that the 1864 Consulate (a legislative committee, elected every 4 years), led by John C. Frémont pass a Manumission Act, freeing the slaves by 1864. By this point, much of North America has been annexed, since *America assisted in the Mexican Rebellion, and the alternate War of 1812, called the First War of Dominion, is far more successful.
I have a lot of notes, if you're interested.
No. Slavery is what made plantation agriculture profitable in the US in the antebellum period, and plantation agriculture is what made the slave states - and slave holders - rich.
Very rich, in fact.
Abolition was as much an economic revolution as a political one; the American Civil War was fought because those with power in antebellum America were unwilling to give it up peacefully.
Best,
I believe that there was some serious talk about gradual emancipation in Upper South states like Virginia before the invention of the cotton gin which could have peacefully reduced the extent of slavery had said invention come later than IOTL, but peaceful abolition in the entire US probably requires the US to somehow shed at least the Deep South peacefully.
a delayed/no cotton gin might end slavery on cotton fields, but it doesn't do anything about tobacco plantations... AFAIK, there was no 'magic invention' there that suddenly made it profitable... it was always profitable with slave run labor. Still, if there is no 'cotton slavery', the impetus to end the rest of it might be stronger...