Starting from as early as 1900 BC, the Indus Valley Civilization entered a gradual decline, probably as a result of climate change in the region; eventually resulting in the abandonment of their cities in the Indus. There is evidence of its inhabitants migrating to the Ganges, but it failed to bring back the prosperity known while living on the Indus.
While all this was happening, the Indo-Aryans pastoralists adopted the war chariot as they began to move into the Indian Subcontinent from Central Asia. What if, instead of OTL, they settle in the declining cities on the Indus and intermarry with the people of the Indus Valley Civilization. They adopt their writing system and even more of the Indus Valley culture than OTL. This would be similiar to what occurred in Greece after the Mycenaeans replaced the Pelagesians, who lived in the area prior to their migration. How plausible is all of this?
While all this was happening, the Indo-Aryans pastoralists adopted the war chariot as they began to move into the Indian Subcontinent from Central Asia. What if, instead of OTL, they settle in the declining cities on the Indus and intermarry with the people of the Indus Valley Civilization. They adopt their writing system and even more of the Indus Valley culture than OTL. This would be similiar to what occurred in Greece after the Mycenaeans replaced the Pelagesians, who lived in the area prior to their migration. How plausible is all of this?
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