alternatehistory.com

I don't want to tie this discussion down to any particular point in time, but the closest OTL got de facto to the scenario I'm envisioning was probably in the early 1400s.

I'm wondering whether a treaty dismembering France, so that the Capetians keep a rump kingdom while the Angevins get to rule significant continental possessions (i.e. more than just Calais and the Channel Islands) independently, would be thinkable. IOTL I don't think the English saw much reason to stop the Hundred Years' War without the French royal title in their grasp, but I don't know why they would necessarily oppose settling for a big chunk of land.

So, basically, the question I'm asking is this: was late medieval France regarded as a unitary thing that could only be possessed or not possessed, or would people have been willing to sacrifice its territorial integrity for pliability in treaty negotiations?
Top