PC: Persianization of Indian sub-continent

Could parts of the Indian sub-continent become Persianized with the Population speaking Persian and viewing themselves as Persian under the Mughal empire .

Would it be restricted to the Muslim population of sub-continent
 
Just to clarify as the title seems open but your post more specific; are you including any Persian empire or specifically making the Mughal Empire become Persian?
 
The Mughal's were heavily Persianized and Persian was the court language, the preferred language of the Muslim elite in northern India, and generally the lingua franca of most of India until the British arrived.

One of our resident linguists can comment better but I believe Urdu and Hindustani are Indian languages with a Persian, Arabic, and Turkic vocabulary. The extensive use of Persian words in Indian languages indicates that a significant portion of the subcontinent spoke it at some point if only as a second language.
 
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Just to clarify as the title seems open but your post more specific; are you including any Persian empire or specifically making the Mughal Empire become Persian?
As Escape Zeppelin mentioned the Mughals were heavily Persianized and Persian was the court language. I was wondering if parts of the Indian sub-continent could be Persianized under Mughal empire similar to how Anatolia and Parts of the Balkans were Turkified under the Ottomans and earlier Turkish groups
 
Due to the sheer number of native Hindustani speakers, linguistic replacement seems impossible. Influencing their language via loanwords is the most likely outcome.
 
It got about as Persianized as it could conceivably get otl

Without an influx of more Persian speakers into the area to help push the culture of the local people I think you're right. The upper levels of society were extremely Persianized but the common people seem to have limited it to loanwords and some cultural traditions.
 
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