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Combing elements from thesethreads -- could Freud dying before writing Interpretation of Dreams have led to early 20th Western Society never adopting the strict sexual norms it did OTL, possibly not even considering "homosexuals" to be some sort of sexual opposite?
If not, what might have emerged as sexual doxa instead?
CONSOLIDATION: For those who're wondering -- I'm mainly inspired here by the ideas of Katz and Blank, though I realize they may well be disagreements with their chief thesis.