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Historically there was a period of time when the House of Commons not only discussed excluding James II from succession to the throne but actually passed a bill doing just that three times. However, each time Charles II made it known that he did not want his brother excluded and the House of Lords failed the bill, the closest they ever got was ~30 lords voting for exclusion and ~60 lords voting against exclusion. Yet Charles II told the French ambassador, that Charles would have excluded his brother had the Parliament guaranteed all royal prerogatives and given him a lot of money. So I ask you is this account from the French ambassador reliable and is it realistic for the House of Commons to actually grant Charles these concessions? Additionally, if James II was excluded would his daughter Mary become the heir or would it be more likely for Monmouth to be legitimized and made heir?
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