The Treaty of Verdun assigned Flanders to West Francia, which over time became the Kingdom of France. By contrast, the area known to us as Wallonia was first assigned to Middle Francia, then the Holy Roman Empire. Due to dynastic wrangling, however, the two polities were united first in the Burgundian Valois realms, which were then inherited by the Habsburgs and the rest is history.
Is it possible that Flanders remains part of the French realm instead of becoming part of a Dutch or German polity? Early enough PODs could remove the nationalist dimension, of course.
Is it possible that Flanders remains part of the French realm instead of becoming part of a Dutch or German polity? Early enough PODs could remove the nationalist dimension, of course.