Would Persia have been officially Partitioned without the Russian Revolution?

  • Yes

    Votes: 9 42.9%
  • No

    Votes: 12 57.1%

  • Total voters
    21
Before World War 1 Iran was under heavy Russian and to a lesser degree British influence, so much so that Russians had troops present in Northern Iran and Garrisoned its cities. This ended after the Russian revolution when Russian troops were forced to withdraw. If World War 1 and/or the Russian revolution had been averted, would Persia have been officially partitioned by Britain and Russia?
 
They had no reason to. They each had in their sphere of influence the parts that were helpful for their own economic interests, plus it allowed them to pressure the government. Apparently they were trying to get a constitution and elections, so the Russians and British decided to set aside their differences (well, they had other reason to as well) and make sure the locals knew to not make any sudden movements. Much cheaper when you have puppets who let you do whatever you want.

And I feel you might want to reword the poll question, if possible. It took me a few moments to realize this wasn't a DBWI saying that Persia had been partitoined.
 
Depends on how we prevent the Russian Revoution

Do we have a long war but just no revolution? In that case, probably yes eventually the Persian government had broken down and the British and russians had spheres of influence

In a short war, the Persian frontier would be a hot spot as the Great game reignites. Russia would be much stronger and its hard to see the British keeping them out Russia will get the lion's share the British might grab pieces on the coast

If the Great War is avoided, Germany and Russia reconcile and the British are likely to pay the price. Russia gets it all
 
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