Ottomans Assimilating Kurds?

Hi, is it possible for the Ottomans to assimilate large amounts of the Kurdish population, like on the scale it was with the Greeks in Asia Minor?
 
They did'nt assmimilate the Greeks, their remained a large many of them until the nastiness of the OEs collapse during WWI and subsequent Population Transfers between Turkey and Greece; the modern Turkish population (and the population going back centuries) are a mixture of different peoples, including Greeks, people from the Southern Balkans, the previous inhabitants of Anatolia and a small amount (IIRC 15% genetic heritage) of the Oghuz Turks.

As to the question itself, no, the OE actually did'nt fully control the Kurdish lands until the mid 19th century onwards and overall was a state based on the idea of 'many people living as side by side' rather than one based on 'All people are Turks/Ottomans'.
 
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They did'nt assmimilate the Greeks, their remained a large many of them until the nastiness of the OEs collapse during WWI and subsequent Population Transfers between Turkey and Greece; the modern Turkish population (and the population going back centuries) are a mixture of different peoples, including Greeks, people from the Southern Balkans, the previous inhabitants of Anatolia and a small amount (IIRC 15% genetic heritage) of the Oghuz Turks.

As to the question itself, no, the OE actually did'nt fully control the Kurdish lands until the mid 19th century onwards and overall was a state based on 'many people living as side by side' than a 'All people are Turks/Ottomans'.
They assimilated large parts of the Greeks in Asia Minor (not all though), although that was in the early Medieval period to the early 1800.

Edit: So if the Ottomans take control of Kurdish lands centuries earlier, they could assimilate them? It doesn't even have to be deliberate, it could just be natural over the course of centuries.
 
They assimilated large parts of the Greeks in Asia Minor (not all though), although that was in the early Medieval period to the early 1800.

Edit: So if the Ottomans take control of Kurdish lands centuries earlier, they could assimilate them? It doesn't even have to be deliberate, it could just be natural over the course of centuries.

In so much as their was intermarriage and many outside the West coast and Pontus adopted Turkish, yes.
 
They assimilated large parts of the Greeks in Asia Minor (not all though), although that was in the early Medieval period to the early 1800.

Edit: So if the Ottomans take control of Kurdish lands centuries earlier, they could assimilate them? It doesn't even have to be deliberate, it could just be natural over the course of centuries.

Most of assimilation probably happened before the Ottoman dynasty became paramount in Anatolia.
Part of the problem is that Kurdistan is a very bad place for this kind of things. Longer direct Ottoman control would likely mean more Turks in the area, more Turkish loanwords in Kurdish languages, and so on, but the OE wasn't really big about assimilating anybody. The area would hardly be worth the kind of effort (as in military, administrative and infrastructural long term presence) that would be conducive to sustained assimilation. OTOH, early and lasting Ottoman direct control in the area would change the dynamics of Middle Eastern politics in the Early Modern Age quite noticeably. The effort would be significant, implying a much more eastern focused OE.
 
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