Ottoman invasion of Spain.

ar-pharazon

Banned
So the ottomans and Spanish battled for control of the Mediterranean throughout the 15th and 16th centuries.

Is it possible from any time from 1500-1680 for the ottomans to launch an invasion of Spain.

It doesn't have to be successful just have ottomans troops land on Spanish soil.

Is this possible.
 
If the Ottomans take Malta in either 1551 or 1565 and then inflict some kind of reverse Lepanto (or another Djerba) on the Spanish/Holy League, you might see raids/landings on the Balearic Isles.

A full blown invasion (let alone a successful one) of the Iberian peninsula seems rather unlikely given the logistics though.
 

Kaze

Banned
Probably a better invasion source would be the Barbary Pirates making an attack - then the Ottomans. If memory serves they did over-run parts of Sicily and Naples, one of them even raided as far as Iceland. Let us say Barbarossa (Oruç and Hızır Hayreddin) unites all the Pirates under him, he could in theory take a good part of Spain or at least make things very interesting.
 
I don't think so: the Ottomans established their control over Tunis only in 1534 and it would be unrealistic to expect them launching a major seaborne operation without any base reasonably close to the Spanish coast.

There is Algeria. And there is a reason why I named 1480. It was Mehmed II invasion of Italy. Had he not died he might as well had an Italian base making Tunis obsolete.
 
Well, the Ottomans were consistently beaten on the seas from the last part of the 16th century onwards, and the 16th and 17th centuries are the Spanish strongest years. But, well, if they had secured North Africa, Malta and maybe the south of Italy, and if the Spanish had been very weakened (like a very destructive Civil War followed by a morisco rebellion) and if France and Portugal had been weakened too, or even cooperated with the Ottomans, then maybe the Ottomans could try it, but their supply lines would be very stretched.
 
So the ottomans and Spanish battled for control of the Mediterranean throughout the 15th and 16th centuries.

Is it possible from any time from 1500-1680 for the ottomans to launch an invasion of Spain.

It doesn't have to be successful just have ottomans troops land on Spanish soil.

Is this possible.
Ottomans win at Wadi al-Laban and then can launch expeditions from occupied Morocco.
 
There is Algeria. And there is a reason why I named 1480. It was Mehmed II invasion of Italy. Had he not died he might as well had an Italian base making Tunis obsolete.

Well, the coastal part of Algeria had been taken by Barbarossa brothers (who kicked out the Spaniards) only in 1516 and conquest was not complete until 1518. But even with 2,000 Janissary he got from Sultan, Hayreddin hardly could do much more than just conquer the territory: a marginally successful expedition against Spain would require a considerably greater force.

How about 1543 when Barbarossa was operating out of Marseilles and Toulon (French-Ottoman alliance)? He had, presumably, up to 44 troops in his disposal but was operating mostly along the Italian coast: took Reggio Calabria, landed on the coasts of Campania and Lazio, threatened city of Rome and then switched Westward, taking Nice on behalf of the French king, Francis I. In 1544 he continued his activities in the area until Charles V and Suleiman agreed to a truce. What if, instead of all of the above he attacked Mediterranean coast of Spain and perhaps even Cadiz? Of course, I have doubts about any serious permanent conquest of the mainland but he could capture the Balearic islands and use them as a base for attacking the ports and controlling the traffic between Spain and Italy. If the later English activities (like raid on Cadiz) are indicative of anything, he probably could loot more than one Spanish port while the main Spanish forces had been busy fighting the French.
 
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