(OT?) Why didn't Hitler use CBW in 1945?

Why didn't Hitler use chemical, biological and radiological weapons to kill as many Allied troops and civilians as possible in the final months of the war? Don't tell me he was worried about Allied retaliation - this was the man who gave the Nero Order after all...
 
Because:
1. Chemical weapons are extremely hard to use effectively, even today.
2. I don't know of a German Bio program.
3. Radiological weapons are vastly overblow in how much damage they do and I doubt they considered using them.
 
Chemical weapons
Hitler was victim by a mustard gas attack in WW One !
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Adolf_Hitler#World_War_I
he refuse to use Chemical weapons in WW Two

Bioweapons
The "Drittes Reich" had a very smal bioweapon program
the Wehrmach is not interested of biological warfare
because they consider them to be considered inefficient and unpredictable.
then in 1942 Hitler banned any biological war research in the Reich.
Ironically, he was the ONLY state leader of the major powers during WW2,
how respect the Geneva Protocol concerning the biological war

Nuclear weapons
several groups work on Bomb from 1933 to 1942
Reichswehrministerium (Reich Ministry of Military)
Reichserziehungsministerium (Reich Ministry of Education) !
Heereswaffenamt (Army Ordnance Office)
all those groups intrigue against each other, or had other ideas how to build the bomb
after 1942 until 1944 came under
Reichsministerium für Bewaffnung und Munition (RMBM, Reich Ministry for Armament and Ammunition)
in hands of Reich Marshal Hermann Göring later under Albert Speer
in 1944 it came program in hand of the SS but nothing of this was combat ready as War ended

yes there are rumours of nuclear testing in 1945
but the only evidence is that a primtiv breeder reactor ran for some minute in 1943
(called Uranmaschine build by Kurt Diebner )
there still uran isotopes waste on reactor site at Gottow facility, near Berlin.
source on Nazi nuclear program TV doku "ZDF History Was ist dran an Hitler Bombe ?"
 
i like more WI Hitler as victim of a gas attack :D

back to Hitler NOT victim of a gas attack.
in that case he had used Gas mostly on east front to exterminate the Jews and the Russians.
i think Hitler had not use Gas on West front, because fear of
Counter-attack with gas or bioweapon by Allied

but that allied Counter-attack will happen because Nazi use gas in USSR.
and Atomic bomb drops on gemany by the Allieds at end of war

this WW2 will have far more victim as OTL
and leave Germany contaminated with bioweapon (Antrax) and radioactivity
 
i like more WI Hitler as victim of a gas attack :D

back to Hitler NOT victim of a gas attack.
in that case he had used Gas mostly on east front to exterminate the Jews and the Russians.
i think Hitler had not use Gas on West front, because fear of
Counter-attack with gas or bioweapon by Allied

but that allied Counter-attack will happen because Nazi use gas in USSR.
and Atomic bomb drops on gemany by the Allieds at end of war

this WW2 will have far more victim as OTL
and leave Germany contaminated with bioweapon (Antrax) and radioactivity

Michel

If all other factors are identical but Hitler uses gas against the Russians then I can't see nuclear weapons being used against Germany, simply because I doubt Germany would last until 44 let alone 45. Britain didn't have nerve agents, although the Germans didn't know that, but did have considerable stocks of other chemical weapons and, equally importantly, the ability to deploy them in large quantities. Given the lack of gas protection for the German population their losses could well be huge while the resulting panic would screw production further. Massive mustard gas attacks on industrial centres would cripple them.

Britain is vulnerable to counter strikes but, apart from the bulk of the Luftwaffe being on the eastern front Britain has a very good air defence system and Germany has far less capacity to deliver gas to Britain. [Would be different in say 44 with the V1's seeing some success but then the Anglo-American air forces would really devastate Germany. Russia would be vulnerable in terms of the cities in range but given the size of the front and short range of many German a/c it would hurt but not be crippling.

Gas is not highly effective against military units whether they have some protection or simply are able to move away from the relatively small affected area.

Steve

Steve
 
Michel

If all other factors are identical but Hitler uses gas against the Russians then I can't see nuclear weapons being used against Germany, simply because I doubt Germany would last until 44 let alone 45.
I was suggesting poison gas being used only in 1945...
 
I was suggesting poison gas being used only in 1945...


George

Ah, sorry, that is slightly different. I did read once, a long time ago, that Hitler did order use of gas against the advancing Red Army late in the war. Knowing the war was lost but what the allies would do to Germany if it opened that particular Pandora's box the people involved 'lost' the order. [Unfortunately the comment about this gave no source details as to what it was based upon].

That late in the war Germany had no real capacity to do more than possibly some artillery use or occasional night-time air raid possibly. In which case the allies would come down very hard on the Germans, with both conventional and gas weapons and the remaining areas of Germany areas under German control would get hammered. Probably bring the war to a slightly quicker end but a considerable increase in German casulties, especially amongst the civilians - along with probably a large number of slave laborers. By that time Germany has minimal defences and organisation to protect against attacks while the allies strength is pretty much at its height. Very short and bloody.

Steve
 
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