The bidding to host the 2030 and 2032 Olympics is quite different from previous Olympic bidding processes. For the first time multiple cities and entire regions are allowed to place joint bids. This is being done so as to spread out the enormous cost of hoisting the games and hopefully reduce the amount of new construction (as two or more cities presumably have more existing infrastructure than one).
For the 2032 Olympics there have been official expressions of interest by Madrid and Valencia, Germany's Rhine-Ruhr metropolitan region, and the Australian State of Queensland. Additionally, an official joint offer by Guadalajara, Tijuana, and Monterrey has already been made and rejected by the IOC.
In addition to these, three cities have made bids for the 2032 Olympics, making the total number of active bids 6. Given that the 2024 Olympics had 2 bids (Paris and LA) and the 2028 Olympics had 1 bid (LA), it seems that the change in what can bid has considerably revived interest in hosting the summer games.
So what if the IOC made this change earlier? Let's say the IOC decides on new regulations for the new millennium, and speculate on potential alternate bids for the 2008 Olympics and on.
For the 2032 Olympics there have been official expressions of interest by Madrid and Valencia, Germany's Rhine-Ruhr metropolitan region, and the Australian State of Queensland. Additionally, an official joint offer by Guadalajara, Tijuana, and Monterrey has already been made and rejected by the IOC.
In addition to these, three cities have made bids for the 2032 Olympics, making the total number of active bids 6. Given that the 2024 Olympics had 2 bids (Paris and LA) and the 2028 Olympics had 1 bid (LA), it seems that the change in what can bid has considerably revived interest in hosting the summer games.
So what if the IOC made this change earlier? Let's say the IOC decides on new regulations for the new millennium, and speculate on potential alternate bids for the 2008 Olympics and on.