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What would have been necessary between 1937 and whenever WWII starts to get an agreement between Germany and Britain & France instead of Germany and Russia at the outset of WW II? Maybe not one as good as the Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact (like when it comes to resources delivered for instance) and does not even have to be a formal public treaty but can as well be a secret memorandum or the like. But has to be good enough as an agreement so Hitler will dare the gamble and turn East instead of West when WWII kicks off.
Basically a reversal of the OTL where Russia successfully diverted Germany into a war against France first and instead have Britain / France successfully divert Germany into a war against Russia first. Not saying that this will then turn out well or any better for Germany than OTL - just curious what would have been necessary for such an "East First" opening of WWII in Europe after Germany got the Rhineland back.
Necessary changes from Germany's side:
Some of these are rather obvious. Not dissolve Czechoslovakia for instance after promising not to. But what else would be necessary to have Britain & France consider a non-agression agreement with Germany? Would that necessitate Germany not annexing Austria? Or if that were tollerated at least not going for the Sudetenland? What about Germany's involvement in the Spanish Civil War? What about Germany's ties with Italy?
How many of the above will Germany have to avoid or tone down at least to make a non-agression agreement in the West possible?
Necessary changes from France & Britain's side:
Some of these are rather obvious again. For instance France & Britain not guaranteeing Poland's borders but other urging Poland into an alliance with Germany or throwing Poland outright under the bus. But besides that, France also had a defense agreement with Russia at that time. That one was surely not worth much to Stalin in OTL, but I guess France on the other hand would have had reservations to let it go. Britain maybe less so though.
What political changes would have been necessary in Britain & France to consider playing Germany off against Russia to buy time for themselves?
No changes from Russia
I'd like to ask the above under the assumption that not much in Russia changes. I.e. Stalin does not go on an agressive spree before WWII kicks off and remains his paranoid and cautions self. Russia may still keep its involvement in the Spanish Civil War, but that is about as far as it goes with sticking its head out and does its best to not antagonize Britain.