No Tudor-Stewart Match?

I read somewhere that the Spanish ambassador at one point recommended to Ferdinand and Isabella to marry the Infanta Maria to King James IV of Scots. If this had happened, would Margaret Tudor then have been sent to marry King Manuel I in Portugal on the death of the Infanta Isabella? Or would she have been sent to France to marry Louis XII? And would Catherine of Aragon still have come to England as the bride for Arthur/Henry VIII?
 
In this case, Catherine of Aragon would still be sent to England, because the marriage with Scotland was suggested because it will help keep the peace between England and Scotland, with both of them married to Trastamara princesses.
 
In this case, Catherine of Aragon would still be sent to England, because the marriage with Scotland was suggested because it will help keep the peace between England and Scotland, with both of them married to Trastamara princesses.

If this does happen, where do those two unmarried Tudor princesses go? Because as I understand it, part of the reason Margaret was married to Scotland was to prevent Scotland supporting someone like Perkin Warbeck again.
 
Yup that was the main aim.
Edward IV had proposed several different offers to the SCots during the 1470s and 80s primarily for his second daughter Cecily to marry the then Duke of Rothesay and future James IV or to his uncle the Duke of Albany - a betrothal with James IV was initially agreed in 1474.
Henry VII repeated the offer in 1486/7 that James III would marry the widowed Elizabeth Woodville and her daughter Cecily marry the future James IV but that fell through.
Once Henry's daughter was born attention focused on Margaret and James which came to fruition with the treaty of perpetual peace in 1502.

The problem with an alternative is that Scotland was not regarded particularly as a great catch for anyone - it was not wealthy and was not militarily strong and was usually at war with England.
Scotish Queen Consort were not usually from the greatest of foreign royals (between 1300 and 1500 only two of the Scots Consorts were the daughter's of a King - Joan of England and Margaret of Denmark)
 
So, the match between James and Maria (who might bring as large a dowry as CoA, which would be a big boost to Scotland's treasury) is unlikely?
 
In my view it would mean no match!

From a Spanish point of view the advantage would only be if both infantes were married to the future English king and the King of Scots and both nations were tied to Spain by military treaty - that would ensure English support against France without the threat of a Scots invasion in support of France.
Even then the chances of the treaty's surviving Ferdinand's willingness to abandon his allies in favour of his own policies *particularly after Isabella's death* are slim (IN OTL Henry VIII never forgave what he considered his father in law's betrayal hence his switch to a pro-French policy and the marriage of his sister Mary to the French King)
 
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