Came across this interesting book review/interview today: https://www.theguardian.com/books/2...-ohler-adolf-hitler-nazi-drug-abuse-interview
I knew Hitler was infamously a druggie, but of particular interest was this passage:
"...the invasion of France was made possible by the drugs. No drugs, no invasion. When Hitler heard about the plan to invade through Ardennes, he loved it [the allies were massed in northern Belgium]. But the high command said: it’s not possible, at night we have to rest, and they [the allies] will retreat and we will be stuck in the mountains. But then the stimulant decree was released, and that enabled them to stay awake for three days and three nights. Rommel [who then led one of the panzer divisions] and all those tank commanders were high – and without the tanks, they certainly wouldn’t have won."
So, if we posit an late 19th/rarly 20th C. POD in which the various relatives of amphetamine weren't synthesized by WWII, would the German invasions still work?
I knew Hitler was infamously a druggie, but of particular interest was this passage:
"...the invasion of France was made possible by the drugs. No drugs, no invasion. When Hitler heard about the plan to invade through Ardennes, he loved it [the allies were massed in northern Belgium]. But the high command said: it’s not possible, at night we have to rest, and they [the allies] will retreat and we will be stuck in the mountains. But then the stimulant decree was released, and that enabled them to stay awake for three days and three nights. Rommel [who then led one of the panzer divisions] and all those tank commanders were high – and without the tanks, they certainly wouldn’t have won."
So, if we posit an late 19th/rarly 20th C. POD in which the various relatives of amphetamine weren't synthesized by WWII, would the German invasions still work?