No maleline cadet Capets

So, I gather we'd have the Duke of Burgundy either King or Regent for his infant son, Flanders made next in line and perhaps raised to a duchy to keep their backing, Joan of Navarre married off to some minor French noble related to the Capets/Burgundians and perhaps reconfirmed as Countess of Champagne, and Edward barred on account of foreign birth.
To avoid any son of Joan or Blanche making a later claim I suspect succession law/precedent becomes either eldest sons of immediate princesses at time of the King's death or election of a King, by a gathering of the nobles and bishops, from among closest male heirs including husbands of princesses.
Does that sound right or would something simpler be needed?
 
So, I gather we'd have the Duke of Burgundy either King or Regent for his infant son, Flanders made next in line and perhaps raised to a duchy to keep their backing, Joan of Navarre married off to some minor French noble related to the Capets/Burgundians and perhaps reconfirmed as Countess of Champagne, and Edward barred on account of foreign birth.
To avoid any son of Joan or Blanche making a later claim I suspect succession law/precedent becomes either eldest sons of immediate princesses at time of the King's death or election of a King, by a gathering of the nobles and bishops, from among closest male heirs including husbands of princesses.
Does that sound right or would something simpler be needed?

No.

And I will add that you don't need to have a succession law or custom publicly edicted. OTL, the Salic Law was only advertized from 1358 on, that is 42 years after Louis X's brother and John I'd uncle became king Philip V instead of Joan of Navarre and 30 years Philip IV's grandnephew became king instead of any grandson or great grandson of Philip IV.

As I previously explained, this was not about law or custom but about political provisions agreed by the peers of France and the second rank nobility that had been more and more tightly linked to the Capetian dynasty and who had supported the Capetian king in his contest with the Plantagenet dynast for 2 centuries.

So if young Philip of Burgundy was chosen as king of France in 1328, his father, the duke Odo of Burgundy (descending from king Robert II on a continuous male line) would have to make a compromise with the more senior branches of the Capetian dynasty.

And there would very probably be a collegial regency with the head of the Valois, of the Evreux and of the Bourbon houses. And I think that if the duke Odo of Burgundy would of course be in charge of the education of his son, the presidency of the regency council would probably go to Philip of Valois as head of the most senior male line.
 
No.

And I will add that you don't need to have a succession law or custom publicly edicted. OTL, the Salic Law was only advertized from 1358 on, that is 42 years after Louis X's brother and John I'd uncle became king Philip V instead of Joan of Navarre and 30 years Philip IV's grandnephew became king instead of any grandson or great grandson of Philip IV.

As I previously explained, this was not about law or custom but about political provisions agreed by the peers of France and the second rank nobility that had been more and more tightly linked to the Capetian dynasty and who had supported the Capetian king in his contest with the Plantagenet dynast for 2 centuries.

So if young Philip of Burgundy was chosen as king of France in 1328, his father, the duke Odo of Burgundy (descending from king Robert II on a continuous male line) would have to make a compromise with the more senior branches of the Capetian dynasty.

And there would very probably be a collegial regency with the head of the Valois, of the Evreux and of the Bourbon houses. And I think that if the duke Odo of Burgundy would of course be in charge of the education of his son, the presidency of the regency council would probably go to Philip of Valois as head of the most senior male line.
I think you're overstating what I said slightly but I probably wasn't clear. In the absence of any male head of Evreux and Valois, and lacking male heirs for the Bourbon, would not precedence be agreed to allow sons of princesses? I mean there are no senior Capetians left.
I'm obviously not saying succession law would be written up but the nobles have to agree something that will later be written up a generation or so down the line or when something similar occurs.
 
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